Mumbai University F.E 1st Semester Result 2011 | MU FE Semester I Exam Result 2011 | University of Mumbai I Sem F.E Result 2011 | www.mu.ac.in

Mumbai University F.E 1st Semester Result 2011 | MU FE Semester I Exam Result 2011 | University of Mumbai I Sem F.E Result 2011 | www.mu.ac.in

Mumbai University (Published) F.E I semester Examination Result 2011.

Click Here To MU F.E 1st Semester Result 2011

The University of Mumbai (known earlier as University of Bombay) is one of the oldest and premier Universities in India. It was established in 1857 consequent upon “Wood’s Education Dispatch”, and it is one amongst the first three Universities in India.
As a sequel to the change in the name of the city from Bombay to Mumbai, the name of the University has been changed from “University of Bombay ” to “University of Mumbai”, vide notification issued by the Government of Maharashtra and published in the Government Gazette dated 4th September, 1996.
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APPSC Group 4 General Studies Paper 1 Important Questions | APPSC Group IV Paper I Important Questions

APPSC Group 4 General Studies Paper 1 Important Questions | APPSC Group IV Paper I Important Questions

Biological Science


NUTRITIONAL REQUIREMENTS
1. The Chemical substances required for energy, growth and body building are called _______
2. Vitamins and Minerals are required in small amounts. So they arecalled _______
3. Nutrition is the procurement of all _______ required for the body.
4. Carbohydrates and Sodium are _______ nutrients.
5. Iron and fluorine are _______ nutrients.
6. Rice is rich in _______ and _______ in proteins.
7. Carbohydrates contain _______, hydrogen and _______
8. Cellulose is one kind of _______
9. Milk Sugar is called _______
10. Cane Sugar is called _______
11. Animal starch is known as _______
12. Amylase hydrolysis _______ into _______
13. _______ helps in the smooth movement of the food in alimentary canal.
14. The Carbohydrate that is stored in the liver is called _______
15. The energy released by 1 gram of glucose is _______
16. Amino acids are units of _______
17. At 20°C fat remains as _______
18. Vanaspati is prepared from _______ fatty acids.
19. There are _______ different amino acids in nature.
20. _______ is essential amino acid in children but non-essential in Adults.
21. _______ are biologically complete proteins.
22. _______ are biologically incomplete proteins.
23. _______ and _______ are essential fatty acids.
24. One gram of fat gives _______ kilo calories in our body.
25. There are more than _______ mineral nutrients in our body.
26. _______ is the major cation in the extracellular fluids of the body.
27. _______ is the major cation in protoplasm of cell.
28. _______ is the major Anion in our body.
29. _______ is required for stimulation of neurons and osmotic balance in our body.
30. Calcium forms _______ percentage of the body weight in an adult human being.
31. We require about _______ milligrams of calcium per day.
32. _______ is essential for the formation of bones, teeth, coagulation of blood and production of milk in lactating females.
33. Deficiency of Iron causes _______
34. Deficiency of Iodine causes _______
35. _______ percentage of iron is present in blood.
36. _______ is essential for production thyroid gland hormone
37. Bone deformities occur due to the excessive intake of _______
38. Excessive intake of fluorine results in _______
39. Fats are made up of _______ and _______
40. _______ is universal Solvent.

Nutritional Requirements – KEY
1. Nutrients
2. Micro Nutrients
3. Nutrients
4. Macro Nutrients
5. Micro Nutrients
6. Carbohydrates, Poor
7. Carbon, Oxygen
8. Carbohydrates
9. Lactose
10. Sucrose
11. Glycogen
12. Starch, simple sugars
13.Mucous coat
14. Glycogen
15. 4 Kilo calories
16. Proteins
17. Solid
18. Unsaturated
19. 24
20. Histidine
21. Meat, Milk, Eggs
22. Vegetables
23. Linoleic acid, Linolenic acid.
24. 9.45
25. 50
26. Sodium
27. Potassium
28. Chloride
29. Potassium
30. 1.5 to 2
31. 400 – 500
32. Calcium
33. Anaemia
34. Hypothyroidism/Simple Goitre
35. 60 – 70
36. Iodine
37. Fluoride
38. Flurosis
39. Fatty Acids, Glycerol
40. Water

DEFICIENCY DISEASES – VITAMINS
1. Taking food deficient in one (or) more _______ is called malnutrition.
2. The effect of malnutrition depends on _______ and _______ status of the individual.
3. In adults, when stored carbohydrates and _______ are used up the body generates energy from _______
4. Children do not have sufficient reserves of _______ and _______ in their body
5. Malnutrition in pregnant women also affects the health of the _______
6. Children given less proteins in their food suffer from _______ malnutrition.
7. Children given less calorie proteins in their food suffer from _______ malnutrition.
8. Kwashiorkor is caused due to the deficiency of _______
9. The African word kwashiorkor means _______
10. Over eating and excess intake of energy results in _______
11. When more than 20% of the body weight is due to fat, the person suffers from _______
12. Recent studies have shown the obesity is _______
13. In the body excess of fat is stored in _______
14. The story of vitamins started in _______ century.
15. Sir H.G. Hopkins discovered a substance required for growth in _______
16. Sir H.G.Hopkins called a substance required for growth as _______
17. The name vitamin was given by _______
18. Vitamin B1 is also called _______
19. Riboflavin is the chemical name of vitamin _______
20. Deficiency of Thiamine causes _______
21. Glossitis is caused by deficiency of vitamin _______
22. When rice is polished (or) repeated by washed _______ vitamin is lost from it.
23. Sailors of Japan knew that eating of _______ causes beri – beri.
24. Chemical name of vitamins B3 is _______
25. Deficiency of Vitamin B3 causes _______
26. Chemical name of vitamin B6 _______
27. Deficiency of _______ result in fits in children.
28. Pernicious Anaemia caused due to deficiency of vitamin _______
29. Cyanocobalamin is the name of vitamin _______
30. The Vitamin that plays an important role in the metabolism of nucleic acids is _______
31. Deficiency of _______ results in burning of feet.
32. Deficiency of _______ results in muscle pains, nervous disorder, Fatigue.
33. Chemical name of Vitamin ‘C’ is _______
34. Deficiency of Vitamin ‘C’ Cause _______
35. The Vitamin required for the formation of collagen is _______
36. The vitamin that helps in the healing of wounds and fractures of bones is _______
37. Vitamin C helps in the absorption and storage of _______
38. The vitamin that is highly sensitive to heat is _______
39. Chemical name of vitamin ‘A’ is _______
40. _______ is required for the production of pigments such as rhodopsin and iodopsin.
41. In plant foods vitamin ‘A’ is present in the form of a compound called _______
42. Night blindness in caused due to deficiency of _______
43. Xeropthalmia is a disease of _______
44. _______ vitamin is stored 6 to 9 months in run body.
45. Chemical name of vitamin – D is _______
46. _______ vitamin helps in absorption of calcium and phosphorus.
47. Sunlight converts _______ present in foods in the body into vitamin D.
48. Deficiency of vitmain D causes _______ in children.
49. Chemical name of vitamin – E is _______
50. The vitamin that prevents sterility in males is vitamin _______
51. Chemical name of vitamin K is _______
52. The vitamin required for coagulation of blood is _______
53. Vitamins are not synthesized in the body. So they are called _______
54. The Vitamins which are synthesized in human intestine by bacteria are _______
55. In adults _______ deficiency weakens the bones and breaks.
56. Deficiency of _______ vitamin results in abortion in females.

Deficiency Diseases – KEY
1. Nutrients
2. Age and Health
3. Fats, Proteins
4. Carbohydrates, Fats
5. Child
6. Protein
7. Calorie
8. Proteins
9. Displaced child
10. Obesity
11. Obesity
12. Genetic
13. Adipose Tissue
14. 18th
15. Milk
16. Accessory Factor
17. Funk
18. Thiamine
19. B2
20. Beri – Beri
21. B2
22. B1 (Thiamine)
23. Polished rice
24. Niacin/Nicotinic Acid
25. Pellagra
26. Pyridoxine
27. Pyridoxine
28. B12
29. B12
30. Folic Acid
31. Pantothenic Acid
32. Biotine
33. Ascorbic Acid
34. Scurvy
35. Vitamin C
36. Vitamin C
37. Iron
38. Vitamin C
39. Retinol
40. Vitamin A
41. Carotene
42. Vitamin A
43. Eyes
44. A
45. Calciferol
46. D
47. Cholesterol
48. Rickets
49. Tocoferol
50. E
51. Phylloquinone
52. Vitamin K
53. Essential Nutrients
54. Vitamin K, Cyanocobalamine
55. Vitamin D
56. E

Physical Science


Velocity of Electromagnetic Waves?
1. The wavelength of the visible spectrum is _____ (June – 09, 05, 04, March 01)
2. The electromagnetic radiations that are used to take photographs of objects in darkness _____ (March – 2009)
3. ____ rays are emitted in radioactivity. (June – 2008)
4. The velocity of electromagnetic waves is _____ (March 2008)
5. Electromagnetic radiations with shortest wavelength are _____ (March 2008)
6. Rays used in RADAR _____ (April 08, June 07) (March 2001)
7. We are protected from ultraviolet radiations of the sun because _____ in our atmosphere absorbs UV rays strongly. (June 2007, April -2008)
8. The radiations used in physio – therapy is _____ (March 2007)
9. Velocity of light in vaccume _____ (June – 2006)
10. Electromagnetic waves are _____ type of waves. (March 2006)
11. 1A°= _____ (Oct – 1999)
12. Frequency range in radio broadcasting _____ (March – 2006)
13. RADAR means _____ (Oct – 99)
14. Microwaves are generated in a electrical circuit on account of _____ (June – 01)
15. On account of change in the rotation or vibrations of molecules of a substance _____ rays are emitted.
16. The waves useful in Telemetry ____
17. ____ rays cause skin cancer if body is exposed for moretime of the same.
18. ____ waves are generated on account of the vibrations of low frequency electromagnetic radiations.
19. The wavelength range of Radio waves.
20. Infrared rays are located through ____
21. The process of using soft X-rays in medical diagnosis is called as ____
22. ____ waves are used in Micro Oven.
23. ____ cause damage to ozone layer.
24. The wavelength range of Infrared rays is from _____ to ____.
25. Mapping of the radio emissions from extra terrestrial sources in known as ____

Answers:
1. 0.4μm – 0.7μm 2. Infrared rays
3. Gama 4. 3 × 108 m/s 5. GAMA
6. Micro waves 7. Ultra violet rays
8. Infrared rays 9. 3×108 m/s
10. Transverse waves 11. 10–8 cm
12. 300 KHz to MHz
13. Radio detection and Ranging
14. Oscillatinos of high frequency
electromagnetic waves
15. Infrared 16. Microwaves
17. Ultra violet 18. Radio waves
19. 1m – 100 km 20. Thermofile
21. Radiography 22. MICRO
23. Spray of gaseous solutions
24. 0.7μm – 100μm25. Radio Astronomy

SOUND
1. If the distance between a node and the next antinode in a stationary wave is 10 cms, then the wavelength is _____ (June 09)
2. Velocity of sound in air ‘V’ = _____ (March-09, April-08) (June-06) (March 03, 01) 3. In a stationary wave, the point at which the maximum displacement is _____ (June, 2008)
4. Periodic vibrations of decreasing amplitude are called _____ (June, 2007) 5. The vibrations that take place under the influence of an external periodic force are called _____ (June, 2007)
6. A medium transmits a sound wave through it, by virtue of its _____ (March 2007)
7. The distance between successive node and antinode is _____ (March – 2006)
8. In a resonance experiment if the first resonance air column length is 10cm, the second length of resonance air column is at ____
9. The distance between two successive particles which are in the same phase is called as ____
10. ____ waves are developed in the resonance of air columns. 11. If particles in the wave vibrate perpendicular to the propagation of wave, then it is called as ____
12. By keeping the length of a pendulum constant, the vibration range is increased by energy then frequency ____
13. ____ is the reason for the collapse of a bridge if march fast is done on it.
14. ____ are the stationary points of particles of media in stationary waves.
15. The distance between two successive antinodes in a stationary wave is ____
16. The wavelength of a sound wave where the velocity is 300m/sec and frequency is 10,000Hz is ____
17. Waves containing compressions and rarefractions are ____
18. Units for the frequency ____
19. The velocity of sound waves have frequencies 200 Hz and 500 Hz is ___
20. Frequency possessed by each system is called as ____
21. If frequency is ”ν” and wavelength is ”λ” then the velocity of sound v = ____
22. The phenomenon in which if one of the
two bodies of the same natural frequency is set into vibrations, the other body also
vibrates under the influence of the first body is called ____
23. When two waves of equal frequency and amplitude travel in opposite direction _____ are formed.
24. Velocity of sound in vaccume is ____
25. Velocity of sound in air is determined with ____

Social Studies


Name Important Peaks of Himalayas..
3. The vehicles are not supposed to enter the roads where ____ sign boards appear.
4. Don’t stop the cycle without ____.
5. The cyclist is supposed to slowdown his vehicle at ____.
6. The overtaking of any vehicle is to be done from ____ only.
7. For driving of power-driven vehicles, one should have driving ____.
8. The driver of a vehicle should keep his vehicle at three ____ distance from front one.
9. ____ is very dangerous while riding two wheeler.
Answers:
1. Traffic education; 2. Safety cautions; 3. No entry; 4.Signaling; 5.Zebra crossing; 6. Right; 7. Licence; 8. Feet; 9. Applying sudden break

Important Questions
Geography

4 Marks Questions
1. What is a sub-continent? Explain how India can be called as Sub- continent?
2. Describe the importance of the Himalayas?
3. Name the Physiographic units of India and briefly explain their formation?
4. Compare Coastal plains of east and west?
5. Describe the Thornthwaite’s classification of climatic regions in India?
6. Describe mechanism of monsoon in India?
7. Describe the ecological and economic significance of forests?
8. Examine the need for forest development in India?
9. What are the different form of soil erosion and their occurrence in India?
10. What are the main causes of the rapid population growth in India?
11. What are the problems of “population explosion”?
12. What is the need for irrigation development in India?
13. What do you mean by a multipurpose project? Mention its main objectives?
14. Distinguish between major, medium and minor irrigation projects?
15. Explain the important characteristic features of Indian agriculture?
16. What are the problems of Indian agriculture?
17. Describe the importance of agriculture in India?
18. What are the important mineral belts identified in the country?
19. Describe the silent features about the distribution of important minerals?
20. what are the favorable factors for the development of cotton textiles in and around Mumbai and Ahmedabad centers?
21. What are major industrial regions in India?
22. What are the advantages of road transport system?
23. Why the means of transport and communication are called the life lines of country?
24. Name the different types of roads?
25. What are the natural scenic beauties of Srinagar?
26. Describe the important aspects of Delhi city?
27. Give the important advantages of Mumbai to become the largest port in the country?
2 Marks Questions.
1. How many coastal states are there in our country? What are they?
2. What are the extreme places of our land frontiers?
3. What is the geometrical location of India? Where does India rank in area among the countries of the world?
4. Name the countries which share frontiers with India?
5. Name important peaks of the Himalayas?
6. What is meant by”monsoon burst or break”?
7. Give a brief account on major problems of rainfall in India?
8. Distinguish between maritime climate and continental climate with examples?
9. How many seasons are recognized in India? What are they?
10. Briefly explain the major forest types and their distribution in India?
11. Explain the spatial distribution of forest land in India?
12. What is soil erosion? What are the agents of soil erosion?
13. What are the important measures of soil conversation?
14. What are the characteristics of alluvial soil?
15. Describe the significance of soils for economic development of a region.
16. What is density of population? What are the high rural and urban populated areas?
17. Distinguish between perennial and inundation canals?
18. what are the three important regions of hydro-power?
19. What is Green revolution? Explain its objectives?
20. Explain the significance of livestock in country’s economy?
21. Explain the significance of mineral resources of a country?
22. Classify the minerals on the basis of their availability in the country?
23. Why the location of sugar industry is strictly confine to very close vicinity of sugarcane growing area?
24. Important steel plants in the country?
25. Different means of communications?
26. Explain the significance of air transport?
27. Explain historical significance of Hyderabad?
28. Distinguish between a harbor and port?
29. What are the problems faced by the Kolkata port?
30. What is foreign trade? Why it is a must?
31. Who are the important buyers of Indian goods?
1 Marks Questions.
1. How is the name india derived?
2. What is Mac Mohan Line?
3. How many states and Union Territories are in India?
4. What is “pass”?
5. What is “Dun”?
6. What is plain?
7. Name the three major river systems of the Great Plains?
8. What is “Terai”?
9. What is Monsoon?
10. Define “Drought”?
11. What are the two important methods of climatic classification?
12. Name the important forest based industries?
13. What is “sheet erosion”?
14. What do you mean by “Bhangar”?
15. Which is the highest population state in our country?
16. What is intensity of irrigation?
17. Which states are administered with joint for “Bhakra-Nangal Project?
18. Where was Hiracud project located?
19. What is live stock?
20. Name the important crops of commercial agriculture?
21. What are the important geographical conditions required for the growth of “paddy
22. What are the fuel minerals?
23. Name the four atomic minerals?
24. Expand IREDA?
25. Write any two minerals which India has exportable surplus?
26. What is industrial region?
27. Name the raw materials required for iron and steel industry?
28. Expand TISCO.
29. What are the challenges of Indian railways?
30. Where is the Rajiv Gandhi International Airport?
31. Where was Ooty situated?
32. Expand IGNOU.
33. Expand BHEL.
34. What is meant by man-made port?
35. What do you understand by the direction of foreign trade?

Economics
4 Marks Questions
1. What are characterstics of Indian economy during the British period?
2. Distinguish various economic systems?
3. What are the reasons and forms of land tenure which gave rise to unequal Socioeconomic structure in India?
4. Distinguish between less developed and developed economies?
5. What are the factors causing regional inbalances? Explain the indicators of regional disparities?
6. Describe the occupational structure of the Indian economy?
7. Explain the significance of service sector in Indian economy?
8. Explain the relationship between farm size and productivity in Indian agriculture?
9. What are the achievements and failures of planning?

2 Marks Questions
1. What is an organised sector?
2. What is the meaning of the unorganised sector?
3. Role of monsoons in India agriculture?
4. Explain different concepts of inflation?
5. Differentiate involuntary and voluntary unemployment?
6. Explain various programmes launched by government for promotion of employment?
7. What is the role of banking and financial institutions in India?
8. What is the role of public sector in Indian Industrialisation?
9. What is economic planning?
10. What are the general and specific objectives of planning in India?

1 Mark Questions
1. How do you measure income inequalities?
2. What is meant by ‘Earned Income’
3. Define poverty line?
4. Expand the term SFDA?
5. What is the full form of NREP?
6. What do you mean by poverty?
7. Name important problems of afflicting the Indian economy?
8. What do you understand by Human Development Index?
9. What do you mean by FERA?
10. Define Basic industries?
11. Name the types of finance in financial systems?
12. Expand RBI?
13. What was the main objective of third five year plan?
14. Who is the chairman of India Planning Commission?
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NPTEL Courses | NPTEL Courses Syllabus | National Programme on Technology Enhanced Learning Courses

NPTEL Courses | NPTEL Courses Syllabus | National Programme on Technology Enhanced Learning Courses

NPTEL Courses
Basic Courses (Semesters I & II)
Civil Engineering
Computer Science & Engineering
Electrical Engineering
Electronics & Communication Engineering
Mechanical Engineering
Ocean Engineering
Biotechnology
Mining Engineering

BranchWebVideo
Basic Courses (Sem I & II)1617
Civil Engineering2419
Computer Science & Engineering2219
Electrical Engineering1623
Electronics & Communication Engineering2022
Mechanical Engineering2723
Ocean Engineering
3
Biotechnology
2
Mining
1
Metallurgy
1
Total125130
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SBI Recruitment 2011 Clerk Application Forms | SBI Clerk Recruitment 2011 Online Application Forms | State Bank of India Clerk Online Application Form

SBI Recruitment 2011 Clerk Application Forms | SBI Clerk Recruitment 2011 Online Application Forms | State Bank of India Clerk Online Application Forms 2011

State Bank Of India Published the Clerk Recruitment Notification.
SBI Clerk Post Details:
* Last Date Of Online Application – 1st November 2011
* Application Fees- Rs. 250/- for General and OBC (Rs.50/- for SC/ST/PWD/XS)
* Written Test – 16th January 2011
* Pay Scale- Rs.7200-19300/-
* Age Limit- 18-28 Years

Click Here To Notification and Online Application Forms
SBI Clerk Exam Previous Papers and Syllabus
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Federal Bank Credit Officers Recruitment Application Forms | Federal Bank Clerk Recruitment Online Application Forms 2011 | Federal Bank Probationary

Federal Bank Credit Officers Recruitment Application Forms | Federal Bank Clerk Recruitment Online Application Forms 2011 | Federal Bank Probationary officers Application Forms 2011 | www.federalbank.co.in

Credit Officers
Graduates with minimum 5 years experience in officers cadre in credit departments at Head Office/Zonal Office Regional Office/large branches of any commercial bank. Salary and scale will be commensurate with experience and qualification.
* First go through the Instructions carefully
Online registration starts on 30-09-2010

Probationary Officers
Graduates in any discipline with minimum 60% marks, born on or after 01.07.1984
* First go through the Instructions carefully
* Download Payment Challan
Online registration starts on 30-09-2010

Clerks
Graduates with minimum 55% marks for science subjects and minimum 50% marks for other streams, born on or after 01.07.1986.
* First go through the Instructions carefully www.federalbank.co.in
* Download Payment Challan
Online registration starts on 30-09-2010

Click Here To Apply Online
Federal Bank Previous Papers
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IDBI Bank Recruitment 2011 Application Forms | IDBI Bank SRD Online Application Forms | IDBI Bank Special Recruitment Drive 2011 Applicatioins

IDBI Bank Recruitment 2011 Application Forms | IDBI Bank SRD Online Application Forms | IDBI Bank Special Recruitment Drive 2011 Applicatioins | www.idbibank.com

SPECIAL RECRUITMENT DRIVE for SC, ST, OBC & PWD

PLEASE READ THE COMPLETE ADVERTISEMENT CAREFULLY BEFORE MAKING PAYMENT OF FEES AND SUBMITTING THE ONLINE APPLICATION

IDBI Bank Ltd., a banking company under the Companies Act 1956, having majority share holding by Government of India, is a leading provider of complete range of retail and corporate banking services to its clients.

Recruitments in IDBI Bank are strictly through open competition and IDBI Bank Ltd. has not hired the services of any agency or individual to recruit personnel on its behalf or collect any money/commission/charges for training, etc.

IDBI Bank Ltd. invites applications to fill up the backlog vacancies mentioned below from Indian citizens belonging to Scheduled Caste (SC), Scheduled Tribe (ST), Other Backward Class (OBC) – Non creamy layer and Persons With Disabilities (PWD) at the Bank’s offices in India.

How to apply for all posts
(a) Applications shall be submitted only by the on-line mode through the Bank’s website after carefully going through all the instructions contained in this advertisement and Online Application Form. No other means/mode of application form will be accepted.
(b) On submission of the online application, the candidate will receive a registration number and password, which he/she needs to retain for use in future.
(c) Important dates for all posts are as under :

(d) Candidates applying for all the post, after submission of the online application form shall take a print of system-generated hard copy of the application form and preserve the same for submission at the time of interview, along with the counterfoil of the challan for payment of fees and the documents required in support of the eligibility criteria as detailed below:
(1) Age: 10th and 12th standard mark sheet / school leaving certificate / birth certificate.
(2) Educational Qualifications:
i. Graduation – all semester wise / year wise individual mark sheets.
ii. All mark sheets pertaining to improvement in the marks [i.e. if the candidate has made more than one attempt to obtain pass/improve marks of any subject in any of the semester(s) or year(s)]
iii. Degree/provisional pass certificate.
iv. If Post Graduate qualification is declared in the application form, the mark sheet and degree/provisional certificate of the same
(3) Work Experience: If declared in the application form, please bring the documents as mentioned in clause – (e).2 below.
(4) Caste Certificate: If declared, certificate in proforma as explained below in clause VII (l).
(5) PWD Certificate: If declared, certificate in proforma as explained below in clause VII (l) and (m).
For More Details Click Here
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SIDBI Grade A and B Officers Recruitment Application Forms 2011 | SIDBI Bank Recruitment Online Application Forms | www.sidbi.com

SIDBI Grade A and B Officers Recruitment Application Forms 2011 | SIDBI Bank Recruitment Online Application Forms | www.sidbi.com

RECRUITMENT OF OFFICERS IN GRADES A & B (This Advertisement can also be viewed at www.sidbi.in)

Candidates are advised to apply ONLINE latest by 16.10.2010, through Bank’s web site at www.sidbi.in after carefully going through all the instructions contained in the application and general instructions given in this advertisement. No other means / mode of Application / Printout will be accepted.

Important Dates:

Date of Commencement of Application : 27/09/2010
Date of Closure : 16/10/2010
Start Date for Fee deposit : 27/09/2010
Last Date for Fee deposit : 16/10/2010
Last Date for Reprint : 31/10/2010

How to apply
Eligible candidates are required to apply only ‘ONLINE’ through the Bank’s website www.sidbi.in. No other means/ mode of application will be acceptable. Application should be filled in English only. Before registering their applications on the website, candidates should possess the following, which they would be required to produce/submit at the time of interview:
(i) Two copies of the Challan issued by the SBI Branch where application cum processing fee / postage charges have been deposited in cash. Challan details shall be required to be filled in the Application form. Candidates must ensure that two copies of the Challan issued by SBI Branch must invariably mention – (i) Journal number (7-10 digits) (ii) Branch name (iii) Branch code number and (iv) date of deposit as indicated above.
(ii) A valid e-mail id for filling the application.
In case the candidate is not having a valid e-mail id, he/she can create a new e-mail id. No request for change in e-mail id subsequently shall be entertained under any circumstances. Since e-mail id shall be the focal contact point with the candidate, they are advised to keep the e-mail id valid during the entire recruitment process and track incoming mails.
(iii) Valid proof of Identity such as PAN card / Passport / Voter ID Card/ Driving License/ Permanent Identity Card issued by the present Employer / any other valid proof of identity issued by Central / State Govt. / Local Govt. bodies acceptable to the Bank.
Note: Candidates must keep a copy of the print out of the system generated Application and Challan Receipt for their record and future reference. After close of the ‘ONLINE’ registration gateway, the facility for taking the print out shall be closed.
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
[PLEASE READ CAREFULLY BEFORE ON LINE FILLING UP THE APPLICATION FORM]
1. The candidate should apply FOR ONE POST ONLY. Multiple applications shall not be considered. Candidates uploading more than one application for any reason shall be treated as ineligible.
2. The Bank has the right to reject any application / candidature at any stage without assigning any reason and the decision of the Bank shall be final and binding on the candidate.
3. Appointments of selected candidates will be subject to his / her being declared medically fit by Bank Medical Officer, satisfactory report about his / her character and antecedents by the Police Authorities satisfactory report from his / her previous employer and referees, verification of caste / tribe and class certificate (for reserved category candidates only) and completion of all other pre recruitment formalities to the complete satisfaction of the Bank. Further, such appointment shall also be subject to Service and Conduct Rules of the Bank.
4. Printout of the online application form and any other document (in original or copy thereof) SHOULD NOT BE SENT to any office / branch of SIDBI.
5. Before filling in the application form, the candidates must ensure that they fulfill all the eligibility criteria with respect to age, educational qualification, work experience etc. as on September 01, 2010 in respect of the post for which he / she is making the application and that the particulars furnished in the application form are correct in all respects.
6. Candidates are cautioned that they should not furnish any particulars or information that are false, tampered/fabricated or should not suppress any material information while applying on line. In case it is detected at any stage that a candidate does not fulfill any of the eligibility criteria for the post applied for and / or that he / she has furnished any incorrect information or has suppressed any material fact(s), his / her candidature will stand cancelled. If any of these shortcomings is / are detected even after the appointment, his/her services are liable to be terminated.
7. Regarding educational qualification, if grades are awarded instead of marks, candidates should attach a copy of the Conversion Chart of Grade into Numeric value which has been duly attested by the Head of the Department / Institute, in case the same is not indicated / printed in the mark sheet.
8. Decision of the Bank in all matters regarding eligibility of the candidate, the stages at which such scrutiny of eligibility is to be undertaken, the documents to be produced for the purpose of conduct of interview, written test / online test / group discussion (if required) and other matters relating to recruitment will be final and binding on the candidates. No correspondence or personal inquires shall be entertained by the Bank in this regard.
9. The Bank reserves the right to raise the minimum eligibility standard, etc., in order to restrict the number of
candidates in the proposed selection process commensurate with the number of vacancies. No separate communication / notification shall be issued in this regard.
10. The Bank shall not entertain requests from the candidates seeking advice about their eligibility to apply.
11. The Bank does not furnish the mark-sheet of selection process to candidates.
12. Application once made will not be allowed to be withdrawn and the Application cum processing fee / postage charges once paid will NOT BE refunded on any account nor would be held in reserve for any future examination or selection. The Application fee cum processing charges / postage charges shall also NOT BE refunded in case the application is rejected / not considered by SIDBI. No correspondence in this regard shall be entertained.
13. Candidates must ensure to fill up the correct particulars of the fee deposited. Entering false/ incorrect / incomplete information in respect of the Challan for deposit of fee / postage charges in the on-line application would render an application invalid & ineligible and the candidature of such candidates shall stand cancelled.
14. Sufficient copies of the recent passport size colour photograph (without dark glasses) which is pasted on the printed copy of the ‘ON LINE’ call letter, should be retained for subsequent recruitment formalities. Candidates are advised not to change their appearance till the entire recruitment process is over. Failure to produce the same photograph subsequently may lead to disqualification.
15. The candidates shall have to produce “print out” of the system generated application form with a duly affixed photograph along with original certificates in respect of age, educational qualification, experience, caste / tribe / class (for SC/ST/OBC candidates only), identity proof and certificate of disability (for PwD only) at the time of appearing for interview. Further, candidates seeking age
relaxation under ‘Children / Family members of those who died in 1984 riots’ and / or whether ordinarily domiciled in Kashmir Division of the State of J & K during 01-01-1980 to 31-12-1989 shall have to produce necessary certificate issued by the competent authority in this regard at the time of interview. Failure to produce the print out of the system generated application form with photograph affixed
on it along with all the requisite certificates / documents in original for verification of the eligibility and other particulars at the time of interview, shall lead to disqualification of the candidate and he / she shall be barred from the interview.
16. In respect of candidates belonging to SC/ST/OBC category, the Caste /Tribe / Class certificate should have been issued in the prescribed format and by authorities empowered to issue such certificate. The OBC certificate should specifically indicate that the candidate does not belong to Creamy Layer Section excluded from the benefits of reservation for OBCs in Civil Posts and Services under Govt. of India and that the OBC Certificate should not be more than one year old from the date of closure of on line registration gateway.
17. The competent authority for issue of the Certificate to SC/ST/OBC is (i) District Magistrate / Additional Distt. Magistrate / Collector / Deputy Commissioner / Additional Deputy Commissioner / Dy. Collector / First Class Stipendary Magistrate / Sub-Division Magistrate / Taluka Magistrate / Executive Magistrate / Extra Assistant Commissioner (ii) Chief Presidency Magistrate / Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate / Presidency Magistrate (iii) Revenue Officer not below the rank of Tahsildar (iv) Sub Divisional Officer of the area where the candidate and / or his family normally resides.
18. The candidate’s appointment will remain provisional subject to caste / tribe / class certificate being verified through proper channel and verification of testimonials. The candidate’s service will be liable to be terminated forthwith without assigning any reason in case the verification reveals that his / her claim for belonging to SC, ST, OBC (including not belonging to creamy layer), PwD, Ex-Servicemen category (as the case may be) or any of the other testimonials is false. The Bank also reserves its right to take such further action against the candidate, as it may deem proper, for production of false certificate(s) / testimonials.
19. Option for use of Hindi/English will be available for online test / written test (if such tests are required) except for those papers which shall be set in English language only and during group discussion and / or interview. Candidates may note to indicate their choice at appropriate place in the application form.
20. Eligible (unemployed) outstation SC/ST and PwD candidates called for INTERVIEW shall be reimbursed to and fro second-class rail / bus fare by the shortest route on production of evidence of travel i.e. Railway / Bus receipt / ticket. The fare for journey of first 30 Kms each shall be borne by the candidate. However, the fare will not be reimbursed to those candidates who fail to produce the print out of the system generated application form with photograph affixed on it along with all the requisite certificates / documents for verification of the eligibility and other particulars at the time of interview.
21. Selected Candidates, who are already in service of Government / Quasi-Government organizations / Public Sector Banks / Undertakings, must produce a ‘proper relieving letter / discharge certificate in original’ from their present Employer at the time of reporting for duty, failing which they shall not be allowed to report for duty. Therefore, candidates, who are already in service of Government / Quasi-Government
organizations / Public Sector Banks / Undertakings are advised to obtain prior permission / No objection certificate from their present employer before applying in SIDBI, as may be required as per rules / regulations of their present employer in this regard.
22. Only candidates willing to serve anywhere in India may apply.
23. Any request for change of address / e-mail id / change of centre for interview shall not be entertained under any circumstances.
24. The Bank reserves the right to cancel any of the centres and / or add some other centres depending upon the response, administrative feasibility etc. Bank also reserves the right to allot the candidate to any of the centres other than the one he / she has opted for.
25. Any legal proceedings in respect of any matter of claim or dispute arising out of this advertisement and / or an application in response thereto can be instituted only In Lucknow and Courts / Tribunals / Forums at Lucknow only shall have sole and exclusive jurisdiction to try any clause / dispute.
26. In case any dispute arises on account of interpretation in version other than English, the English version of this Advertisement will prevail.
27. The candidate must ensure to keep safely the system generated print out of application form / registration number and password for future use. No requests for re supply of registration number /password shall be entertained.
28. Canvassing in any form will be a disqualification.

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SIDBI Grade A and B Officers Syllabus and Previous Papers

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PTET 2011 Cut off | PTET 2011 Second Round Counselling | 2nd Round Counselling of PTET 2011 | www.ptetjnvu.org

PTET 2011 Cut off | PTET 2011 Second Round Counselling | 2nd Round Counselling of PTET 2011 | www.ptetjnvu.org

NOTICE FOR SECOND ROUND COUNSELING OF PTET-2011 CANDIDATES: 27/09/2010

PTET 2011 Second Round Counselling Result
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Haryana Staff Selection Commission Revised Interview Schedule for October 2011 | HSSC Interview Notice for Clerks

HARYANA STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION BAYS NO.67-70, SEC-2, PANCHKULA-134151
NOTICE TO THE CANDIDATES FOR HOLDING THE INTERVIEW FOR THE POSTS OF CLERK FOR VARIOUS DEPTT/ BOARDS/ CORPORATIONS OF HARYANA AGAINST ADVERTISEMENT NO. 1/2008 CAT. NO. 01 DATED 07-02-2008 READ WITH CORRIGENDUM DATED 27-10-2008.

In continuation of Commission short listing Notice dated 09-12-2009 read with corrigendum dated 22-12-2009 which published in various newspapers, it is notified for the information of candidates that the interview of the short listed eligible candidates for the post of Clerk for various Deptt/ Boards/ Corporations of Haryana against Advt. No. 1/2008 Cat. No. 1 dated 07-02-2008 read with corrigendum dated 27-10-2008 are being conducted alphabetically (as per the first letter of the name of the applicant) and in the sixth instance the candidates whose names start with Alphabet i.e. V, W, X, Y and Z will be called for interview w.e.f. 14-10-2010 to 16-10-2010 & 19-10-2010 to 21-10-2010 at PWD (B&R) Rest House Ambala Cantt, Karnal, Rewari, Canal Rest House Yamunanagar, Commission Office Bays No. 67-70, Sec-2, Panchkula as per date, place and time indicated in the call letter.

The call letters will be issued separately and eligible candidates are advised to attend the interview on the date & place mentioned in the call letter. If any candidate, whose name starts with Alphabet V, W, X, Y & Z and possesses the required cut off points as mentioned in the aforesaid shortlisting Notice does not receive call letter upto 09.10.2010, he/she is advised to contact the Haryana Staff Selection Commission, Panchkula along with original Mark Sheets/Certificates, Photograph, Receipt of Registry etc. in support of his/her qualifications and proof of having deposited the requisite fee during the office hours for receipt of duplicate Roll No. as per schedule given below:-
haryana.gov.in Interview Notice for Clerks
www.haryana.gov.in Revised Interview Schedule for October
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IIST Admission Test 2012 | ISAT 2012 | IIST Admission Test 2011 Application Forms | ISAT 2012 Application Forms

IIST Admission Test 2012 | ISAT 2012 | IIST Admission Test 2011 Application Forms | ISAT 2012 Application Forms

Indian Institute of Space Science and Technology (IIST) is Asia’s First Space University offering courses from undergraduate doctoral levele in Space Science and Technology. Situarted in the picturesque locale of Valiamala in Thiruvananthapuram Dist. Kerala, the Institute is poised to becomew a world class centre learning and reasearch

Offers B.Tech Programmes in Aerospace Engineering Avionics and Physical Sciences. Admissions to these programmes are based on admission test conducted by IIST. Assistance is provided to all B.Tech Students to Cover the cost of education, boarding, loading and health care, On successful completion of the course with prescribed academic standard, the students will be absorbe in ISRO as Scientists/Engineers

For The B.Tech admission og the next academic year 2011-2012, IIST announces
ISAT-2011 (IIST Admission Test 2011)
Saturday 16th April 2011
9:30 to 12:30 hrs

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RSRTC Driver/Conductor Recruitment Exam Pattern | RSRTC Driver/Conductor Exam Syllabus | RSRTC Artisan Grade II/III Syllabus

RSRTC Driver/Conductor Recruitment Exam Pattern | RSRTC Driver/Conductor Exam Syllabus | RSRTC Artisan Grade II/III Syllabus

Rajasthan State Road Transport Corporation (RSRTC) Invites application for the recruitment of post of Driver, Conductor & Artisan Gr-II & III.
1. Driver : 189 Posts
2. Conductor : 471 Posts
3.Artisan Gr-II : 12 Posts
4. Artisan Gr-III : 119 Posts
Application Fee : Fee for General & OBC Rs. 300/- and for other it is Rs. 75/- should be paid in the form of postal Order to RSRTC.
Applications in the prescribed format should reach RSRTC on or before 25/10/2010.
Last Date : 25.10.2010
Age : 18 – 35 yrs
Pay Scale : 5200 – 20,200 Grade Pay 1900.
Click Here To Download Syllabus
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RSRTC Driver Recruitment Application Forms | RSRTC Conductor Recruitment Application Forms 2011 | RSRTC Artisan Gr-II and III Recruitment Application

RSRTC Driver Recruitment Application Forms | RSRTC Conductor Recruitment Application Forms 2011 | RSRTC Artisan Gr-II and III Recruitment Application Forms 2011

Rajasthan State Road Transport Corporation (RSRTC) Invites application for the recruitment of post of Driver, Conductor & Artisan Gr-II & III.
1. Driver : 189 Posts
2. Conductor : 471 Posts
3.Artisan Gr-II : 12 Posts
4. Artisan Gr-III : 119 Posts
Application Fee : Fee for General & OBC Rs. 300/- and for other it is Rs. 75/- should be paid in the form of postal Order to RSRTC.
Applications in the prescribed format should reach RSRTC on or before 25/10/2010.
Last Date : 25.10.2010
Age : 18 – 35 yrs
Pay Scale : 5200 – 20,200 Grade Pay 1900

RSRTC Recruitment Details

RSRTC Application From
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Vijaya Bank Probationary Officers Exam Sample Questions | Vijaya Bank Probationary Officers Sample Question Papers | Bank Probationary Officers Solved

Vijaya Bank Probationary Officers Exam Sample Questions | Vijaya Bank Probationary Officers Sample Question Papers | Bank Probationary Officers Solved Paper

Model Paper For Different Bank Probationary Officers Reasoning Ability Test
Directions—(Q. 1–5) For each of the following questions there is some relati onship between the two terms to the left of :: and the same relationship obt ains between the two terms to its right. In each of these questions the four th term is missing. This term is one of the alternatives among the five term s given below. Find out this term.
1. ABCD is related to BEGI in the same way as BCDE is related to … ?
(A) ADFH
(B) CFHJ
(C) CDEF
(D) CEGI
Ans : (B)
2. ABEF is related to BCFG in the same way as GHKL is related to … ?
(A) FGKJ
(B) HILM
(C) HIKJ
(D) HIML
Ans : (B)
3. BYCX is related to AZDW in the same way as DWEV is related to … ?
(A) CEXV
(B) CXFU
(C) EVFU
(D) EWCX
Ans : (B)
4. ‘CIRCLE’ is related to ‘RICELC’ in the same way as ‘SQUARE’ is related
to—
(A) UQSERA
(B) QUSERA
(C) UQSAER
(D) QSUERA
Ans : (A)
5. ‘JKLM’ is related to ‘XYZA’ in the same way as ‘NOPQ’ is related to—
(A) RSTU
(B) YZAB
(C) DEFG
(D) BCDE
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 6–15) Each of the following questions has four alternative r esponses. Select the correct response.
6. Which one of the following is same as liver, heart, kidney?
(A) Nose
(B) Blood
(C) Urine
(D) Lung
Ans : (D)
7. Which one of the following is same as uncle, aunt, brother?
(A) Child
(B) Boy
(C) Adult
(D) Nephew
Ans : (D)
8. Which one of the following is same as Jute, Cotton, Wool ?
(A) Nylon
(B) Rayon
(C) Silk
(D) Terylene
Ans : (C)
9. Which one of the following is same as lead, convince, allure?
(A) Direct
(B) Order
(C) Initiate
(D) Fascinate
Ans : (D)
10. Which one of the following is same as flood, fire, cyclone?
(A) Accident
(B) Rain
(C) Earthquake
(D) Damage
Ans : (C)
11. Which one of the following is same as carpenter, plumber, electrician ?
(A) Doctor
(B) Blacksmith
(C) Teacher
(D) Lawyer
Ans : (B)
12. Which one of the following is same as cork, plug, dam ?
(A) Obstruction
(B) Drain
(C) Pipe
(D) Tap
Ans : (A)
13. Which one of the following is same as red, yellow, blue?
(A) Sky
(B) Dark
(C) Green
(D) Bright
Ans : (C)
14. Which one of the following is same as desire, wish, want ?
(A) Pleasant
(B) Feel
(C) Anxiety
(D) Satisfy
Ans : (C)
15. Which one of the following is same as ohm, volt, amp. ?
(A) Light
(B) Metre
(C) Hour
(D) Watt
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 16–20) In each of the sentences given below, there are two qu estions marks given one in the beginning and the other at the end. To fill u p the question marks, there are few alternatives. Choose the correct alterna tive.
16. ( ? ) is related to Masculine in the same way Woman is related to ?
(A) Disguise, Modest
(B) Capacity, Woman
(C) Man, Feminine
(D) Brave, Mrs.
Ans : (C)
17. ( ? ) is to Sky as Fish is to ?
(A) Blue, Swim
(B) Bird, Water
(C) Open, Hook
(D) Tree, Colour
Ans : (B)
18. ( ? ) is to Uncle as Mother is to ?
(A) Brother, Brought-up
(B) Father, Aunt
(C) Cousin, Beautiful
(D) Aunt, Father
Ans : (D)
19. ( ? ) is to Sri Lanka as Delhi is to ?
(A) Columbo, India
(B) Kathmandu, Capital
(C) India, Paris
(D) Island, Harbour
Ans : (D)
20. ( ? ) is to Ivory as Deer is to ?
(A) White, Hunt
(B) Elephant, Horn
(C) Huge, Rare
(D) Costly, Scarce
Ans : (B)
Directions—From questions 21 to 25 fill the correct pair in place of questio
n marks.
21. Table is to ( ? ) as Cup is to ?
(A) Furniture, Tea
(B) Student, Horse
(C) Wood, Hot
(D) Chair, Plate
Ans : (D)
22. Sugar is to ( ? ) as Mava is to ?
(A) Sweet, Sour
(B) Energy, Machine
(C) Sugarcane, Milk
(D) White, Sweet
Ans : (C)
23. ( ? ) is to Sun as Rain is to ?
(A) Moon, Rainbow
(B) Light, Cloud
(C) Sky, Wet
(D) Day, Night
Ans : (B)
24. ( ? ) is to Brain as Mouth is to ?
(A) Skull, Tongue
(B) Hat, Lips
(C) Hair, Voice
(D) Turban, Saliva
Ans : (A)
25. ( ? ) is to Touch as Ear is to ?
(A) Hand, Know
(B) Experience, Feeling
(C) Skin, Hear
(D) Hair, Dirt
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 26–30) In Column I are listed certain groups of individuals while in Column II are listed some of the characteristics against each gr oup of individuals which are common to each member of that group.
Column I Column II
FHIJ TW
IJK PT
IJLM SUW
GHIKM RV
GHI QRV
FGI PR
HIJ QTW
IJL QSUW
GIJ PQS
26. Which individual has all the above characteristics?
(A) J
(B) I
(C) H
(D) M
Ans : (B)
27. Which characteristics are found either in J or in K or in both but in M?
(A) P, Q, T
(B) P, Q, R, S
(C) Q, R, S, T
(D) U, V, T
Ans : (A)
28. Which Characteristics is common to G and H but not in M?
(A) S
(B) B
(C) Q
(D) R
Ans : (C)
29. Which Characteristics are common to H and J but not in K?
(A) P, Q
(B) Q, W
(C) Q, R
(D) R, W
Ans : (B)
30. Which Characteristics is not found either in F or in L or in both?
(A) Q
(B) U
(C) S
(D) V
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 31–35) In each of the following question, three words are giv en with four alternatives. One of the four alternatives is same as the three words given in beginning. Then find out the correct alternative answer.
31. Which one is the same as Mumbai, Kolkata, Cochin ?
(A) Delhi
(B) Kanpur
(C) Chennai
(D) Sholapur
Ans : (C)
32. Which one is the same as Coal, Ebony and Soot?
(A) Blush
(B) Raven
(C) Ash
(D) Rust
Ans : (C)
33. Which one is the same as Basket, Pail and Pan ?
(A) Knife
(B) Spoon
(C) Fork
(D) Bowl
Ans : (D)
34. Which one is the same as Emancipate, Free and Release?
(A) Ignore
(B) Pardon
(C) Liberate
(D) Quit
Ans : (C)
35. Which one is the same as Daisy, Pansy and Rose?
(A) Bed
(B) Violet
(C) Plant
(D) Red
Ans : (C)
Directions—Find out the correct answer in each of the questions from 36 to
40.
36. Which one is the same as Arid, Parched and Droughty ?
(A) Draft
(B) Cow
(C) Earth
(D) Dry
Ans : (D)
37. Which one is the same as Grandfather, Father and Brother?
(A) Baby
(B) Father-in-law
(C) Son
(D) Son-in-law
Ans : (C)
38. Which one is the same as Yellow, Orange and Green?
(A) Tree
(B) Purple
(C) Grass
(D) Leaf
Ans : (B)
39. Which one is the same as Lungs, Liver and Kidneys?
(A) Heart
(B) Intestines
(C) Testis
(D) Neck
Ans : (A)
40. Which one is the same as Lock, Shut and Fasten?
(A) Window
(B) Door
(C) Block
(D) Iron
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 41–45) In each of the following questions, three words are gi ven. Under them four alternatives are provided, one of which expresses most effectively the general characteristic if these three words. That alternativ e is your answer.
41. Aeroplane, Train, Truck
(A) Speed
(B) Rooms
(C) Wheels
(D) Transport
Ans : (D)
42. Wolf, Leopard, Deer
(A) Meat eater
(B) Jungles
(C) Mammals
(D) Cruel
Ans : (C)
43. Sword, Gun, Pistol
(A) Arms
(B) Constable
(C) Bullet
(D) War
Ans : (A)
44. Fraud, Jealously, Hatred
(A) Destruction
(B) Envy
(C) Human Characteristics
(D) Quality
Ans : (C)
45. Novel, Epic, Drama
(A) Subject
(B) Literature
(C) Poetry
(D) Knowledge
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 46–50) In each of the following questions, three words are g iven. They are followed by four words, one of which stands for the class to which these three words belong. Identify that word.
46. Wheat, Barley, Rice
(A) Food
(B) Gram
(C) Cereal
(D) Agriculture
Ans : (C)
47. Coal, Iron, Mica
(A) Rock
(B) Minerals
(C) Gold
(D) Earth
Ans : (B)
48. Honesty, Credibility, Reliability
(A) Quality
(B) Dependability
(C) Charter
(D) Nicety
Ans : (A)
49. Cap, Coat, Trousers
(A) Smart
(B) Shirt
(C) Dress
(D) Tailor
Ans : (C)
50. Stool, Table, Chair
(A) Bench
(B) Furniture
(C) Carpet
(D) Office
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 51–60) For each of the following questions, there are two wo rds and five alternative answers. In each of the alternative answers there are two words. Then find out the alternative whose two words have the same relation as in the two words given in question.
51. Resignation : Office ::
(A) Competition : Game
(B) Illness : Hospital
(C) Abdication : Throne
(D) Moisture : Rain
(E) Appointment : Interview
Ans : (C)
52. Bunch : Key ::
(A) Hound : Pack
(B) Team : Competition
(C) Beehive : Bee
(D) Examination : Subject
(E) Bouquet : Flower
Ans : (E)
53. Profit : Loss ::
(A) Success : Failure
(B) Rupee : Paisa
(C) Whole : Part
(D) Multiplication : Addition
(E) Adult : Child
Ans : (A)
54. Sapling : Tree ::
(A) Horse : Mare
(B) Student: Teacher
(C) Bud : Flower
(D) Tree : Furniture
(E) River : Brook
Ans : (C)
55. Supervisor : Worker ::
(A) Junior : Senior
(B) Superior : Inferior
(C) Elder : Younger
(D) Debtor : Creditor
(E) Officer : Clerk
Ans : (E)
56. Malaria : Mosquito ::
(A) Poison : Death
(B) Rat : Plague
(C) Epidemic : Bacteria
(D) Cholera : Water
(E) Medicine : Disease
Ans : (D)
57. Paisa : Rupee ::
(A) Kilogram : Quintal
(B) Metre : Centimetre
(C) Coin : Money
(D) Weight : Ton
(E) Rupee : Wealth
Ans : (A)
58. Poet : Verse ::
(A) Prose : Novelist
(B) Author : Book
(C) Novel : Prose
(D) Publication : Editor
(E) Summary : Paraphrase
Ans : (B)
59. Water : Thirst ::
(A) Food : Hunger
(B) Sun : Energy
(C) Appetite : Meal
(D) Ice-cream : Cold
(E) Poison : Death
Ans : (A)
60. Pulp : Paper ::
(A) Wood : Table
(B) Cloth : Shirt
(C) Yarn : Fabric
(D) Iron : Steel
(E) Wood : Sawdust
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 61–70) For each of the following questions, there are two wo rds and eight alternative answers. Then find out two such alternatives the relation in which is the same as in the two words given in the beginning.
61. Trees and Forest
(A) Ocean (B) Page
(C) Books (D) Study
(E) Library (F) Ship
(G) Boys (H) Classes
Ans : (C, E)
62. Constable and Police
(A) Clerk (B) Hospital
(C) Medicine (D) Mother
(E) Girl (F) Doctor
(G) File (H) House
Ans : (B, F)
63. Brother-in-law and Sister
(A) I (B) Youth
(C) Female-companion (D) Wife
(E) My (F) Beautiful Woman
(G) Damsel (H) Sister-in-law
Ans : (B, G)
64. Cold and Hot
(A) January (B) Monday
(C) Year (D) June
(E) March (F) Thursday
(G) Month (H) August
Ans : (A, D)
65. High and Low
(A) Far (B) Rent
(C) Next (D) Near
(E) Distance (F) Fair
(G) Last (H) Clean
Ans : (A, D)
66. Unsuccess and Laziness
(A) Study (B) Success
(C) Day (D) School
(E) Labour (F) Lazy
(G) Game (H) Honesty
Ans : (E, B)
67. Car and Garage
(A) Horse (B) Grass
(C) Bird (D) Water
(E) Man (F) Stable
(G) Animal (H) Hive
Ans : (A, F)
68. Hand and Fingers
(A) Foot (B) Eyes
(C) Hat (D) Teeth
(E) Head (F) Stomach
(G) Nose (H) Hair
Ans : (E, H)
69. Oxygen and Man
(A) Petrol (B) Stool
(C) Carpenter (D) Sky
(E) Driver (F) Wood
(G) Water (H) Fish
Ans : (G, H)
70. Neat and Clean
(A) Dirty (B) Tidy
(C) Route (D) White
(E) Wise (F) Ravi
(G) Foul (H) Beauty
Ans : (A, G)
Directions—(Q.71–75) In each of the following two columns, the groups of t hree words are given. Compare two columns and find the pairs given below e ach question, which satisfy the same relationship between the two groups o f that pair.
Column I
(A) Cereal, Wheat, Tomato
(B) Seeds, Apple, Fruit
(C) Mother, Sister, Female
(D) Teacher, Writer, Speaker
(E) Stool, Furniture, Table
Column II
(P) Apple, Banana, Fruit
(Q) Wheat, Barley, Cereals
(R) Doctor, Painter, Father
(S) Cow, Mammal, Animal
(I) Soldier, Army, Civilian
71. (A) BP
(B) AQ
(C) CR
(D) EP
Ans : (D)
72. (A) BR
(B) AT
(C) CS
(D) DP
Ans : (C)
73. (A) DR
(B) BR
(C) ET
(D) CS
Ans : (A)
74. (A) BS
(B) AT
(C) AQ
(D) DQ
Ans : (B)
75. (A) CR
(B) EQ
(C) BQ
(D) DS
Ans : (B)
Labels: BANK PO REASONING, GENERAL INTELLIGENCE TEST BANK PO REASONING, Model Paper For Different Bank Probationary Office rs Exam, Reasoning Test : Bank PO, SBI BANK CLERK REASONING 0 comments
GENERAL INTELLIGENCE TEST : BANK PO
GENERAL INTELLIGENCE TEST
BANK PO , MBA , RRB , LIC ASSISTANT
1. Piyush is 18th from either end of a row of boys. How many boys are there in that row ?
(A) 26
(B) 32
(C) 24
(D) 35
2. ‘Medicine’ is related to ‘Patient’ in the same way as ‘Education’ is relat
ed to—
(A) Teacher
(B) School
(C) Student
(D) Tuition
3. Fill in the missing letter in the following series—
S, V, Y, B, ?
(A) C
(B) D
(C) E
(D) G
4. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series ?
3, 8, 6, 14, ?, 20
(A) 11
(B) 10
(C) 8
(D) 9
5. Select the correct option in place of the question mark—
AOP, CQR, EST, GUV, ?
(A) IYZ
(B) HWX
(C) IWX
(D) JWX
6. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series ?
1, 4, 9, 25, 36, ?
(A) 48
(B) 49
(C) 52
(D) 56
7. In a class of 60 where boys are twice that of girls, Raman ranked 17th fr om the top. If there are 9 boys ahead of Raman, how many girls are after her in the rank ?
(A) 26
(B) 12
(C) 10
(D) 33
8. If ‘BOAT’ is written as ‘YLZG’ in a code language how is ‘EGG’ to be w ritten in the same language ?
(A) VSS
(B) URR
(C) VTT
(D) UTT
9. In a code language SINGER is written as AIBCED then GINGER will be
written in the same code as—
(A) CBIECD
(B) CIBCED
(C) CBICED
(D) CIBECD
10. If BAT is coded as 283, CAT is coded as 383 and ARE is coded as 801 , then the code for BETTER is—
(A) 213310
(B) 213301
(C) 123301
(D) 012334
11. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue, blue is called rain, rain is called pink and pink is called fish in a certain language then what is the colour of sky called in that language ?
(A) Blue
(B) Fish
(C) Rain
(D) Pink
12. A man walks 3 km northwards and then turns left and goes 2 km. He again turns left and goes 3 km. He turns right and walks straight. In which dire ction he is walking now ?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
13. One morning after sunrise Vikas and Shanu were standing in a lawn with their back towards each other. Vikas’s shadow fell exactly towards left-h and side. Which direction Shanu was facing ?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
14. Neelam is taller than Paumpi but not as tall as Mihir. Roma is taller th an Namarata but not as tall as Paumpi. Who among them is the tallest ?
(A) Mihir
(B) Paumpi
(C) Namarata
(D) Neelam
15. In an examination Raja got more marks than Mohit but not as many as M inal. Minal got more marks than Suresh and Rupali. Suresh got less marks than Mohit but his marks are not the lowest in the group. Who is second i n the descending order of marks ?
(A) Minal
(B) Rupali
(C) Raja
(D) None of these
16. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Raja said “She has no sister or daug hter but her mother is the only daughter of my mother’’. How is the girl in the photograph related with Raja’s mother ?
(A) Sister in law
(B) Grand Daughter
(C) Daughter in law
(D) None of these
17. If Suyash’s father is Babloo’s father’s only son and Babloo has neither a brother nor a daughter. What is the relationship between Suyash and Babloo ?
(A) Uncle–Nephew
(B) Father–Daughter
(C) Father–Son
(D) Grandfather–Grandson
18. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of a weekda y. Next day he forwarded it to the table of the senior clerk, who was on lea ve that day. The senior clerk next day evening put up the application to the desk officer. Desk officer studied the application and disposed off the matter on the same day, i.e., Friday. Which day the application was received by the inward clerk ?
(A) Tuesday
(B) Earlier week’s Saturday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Monday
19. Flight to Mumbai leaves every 5 hours. At the information counter I learn t that the flight took off 25 minutes before. If the time now is 10 : 45 a.m. , what is the time for the next flight ?
(A) 2 : 20 a.m.
(B) 3 : 30 a.m.
(C) 3 : 55 p.m.
(D) 3 : 20 p.m.
20. Babloo ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the bottom among those w ho passed an examination. 6 boys did not participate in the competition an d 5 failed in the examination. How many boys were there in that class ?
(A) 44
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 55
21. Indra is 7th from the left and Jaya is 5th from the right. When they inte rchange their position Jaya becomes 19th from the right. What is Indra’s posi tion from the left ?
(A) 21st
(B) 19th
(C) 23rd
(D) 20th
22. If EARTHQUAKE is coded as MOGPENJOSM then EQUATE will be
coded as—
(A) MENOPM
(B) MENOMP
(C) NJOGPM
(D) MNJOPM
23. If COUNTRY is coded in certain way as EMWLVPA, ELECTORATE wil
l be coded in the same manner as—
(A) CJCEFQPYWC
(B) CJGERQTYVG
(C) CNCERQPCRG
(D) GJGAVMTYVC
24. ‘Air’ is to ‘Bird’ as ‘Water’ is to…
(A) Drink
(B) Fish
(C) Wash
(D) Swim
25. ‘Pencil’ is to ‘Write’ as ‘Knife’ is to ……….
(A) Injure
(B) Peel
(C) Prick
(D) Attack
Answers with Hints
1. (D)
2. (C) As ‘Medicine’ is used by a ‘Patient’ in the same way ‘Education’ is u
sed by a ‘Student’.
3. (C)
4. (D)
5. (C)
6. (B)
7. (B)
8. (C)
9. (B)
10. (A)
11. (C)
12. (A)
13. (D)
14. (A) Mihir > Neelam > Paumpi > Roma > Namrata
= The tallest is Mihir.
15. (C) Minal > Raja > Mohit > Suresh > Rupali
16. (B) The girl in the photograph is the daughter of Raja’s sister. Hence the
girl is grand daughter of Raja’s mother.
17. (C) Suyash is the son of Babloo.
18. (C) The desk officer received the application on Friday. Hence the seni
or clerk received it on Thursday and the inward clerk received the applicat
ion on Wednesday.
19. (D) The time for the next flight
= 10·45 – 0·25 + 5·00
= 15·20 = 3 : 20 p.m.
20. (D) Number of boys in the class
= (16 + 29 – 1) + 6 + 5
= 55
21. (A)
22. (D)
23. (D)
24. (B) As ‘Bird’ flies in ‘Air’ similarly ‘Fish’ swims in ‘Water’.
25. (D) As ‘Pencil’ is used to ‘Write’ similarly ‘Knife’ is used to ‘Attack’.
Labels: GENERAL INTELLIGENCE TEST BANK PO REASONING,
MBA GENERAL INTELLIGENCE, MBA GENERAL INTELLIGENCE SO
LVED QUESTIONS, RRB GENERAL INTELLIGENCE, SBI BANK CL
ERK REASONING 0 comments
SBI BANK CLERK 2008 SOLVED PAPER
Posted by Free Exam Original Paper Wednesday, June 11, 2008 at 4:01 AM
SBI BANK CLERK 2008 SOLVED PAPER
(HELD ON 06-01-2008)
Reasoning Ability
121. Among M, T, R and P, M is older than only P. T is older than R. Who
among them is the oldest ?
(A) T (B) R
(C) T or R (D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
122. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a grou
p. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Hill (B) Valley
(C) Dam (D) River
(E) Mountain
123. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ES
RO using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three
(E) More than three
124. If ‘P’ denotes ‘+’; ‘R’ denotes ‘¸’, ‘T’ denotes ‘–’ and ‘W’ denotes ‘X
’, then—
40 R 8 W 10 T 12 P 16 = ?
(A) 50 (B) 46
(C) 30 (D) 70
(E) None of these
125. What should come next in the following number sequence ?
2 2 3 2 3 4 2 3 4 5 2 3 4 5 6 2 3 4 5 6 7 2 3 4
(A) 8 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 2
(E) None of these
126. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CONSTABLE each
of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English a
lphabet ?
(A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three
(E) More than three
127. In a certain code BOARD is written as 54#12 and MORE is written as
941$. How is DREAM written in that code ?
(A) 21$#9 (B) 2$1#9
(C) 51$#9 (D) 25$#9
(E) None of these
128. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a grou
p. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 50 (B) 65
(C) 170 (D) 255
(E) 290
129. How many such digits are there in the number 5231698 each of which is
as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are rearr
anged in ascending order ?
(A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three
(E) More than three
130. In a certain code CREAM is written as NBDBQ. How is BREAD written
in that code?
(A) EBFAQ (B) EBDAQ
(C) BEDQA (D) BEFQA
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 131–135) In each of the questions below are given three sta
tements followed by three Conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to
take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance f
rom commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which o
f the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disreg
arding commonly known facts.
131. Statements # Some flowers are bins. Some bins are handles. All handles
are sticks.
Conclusions # I. Some sticks are bins.
II. Some handles are flowers.
III. Some sticks are flowers.
(A) Only II follows
(B) Only III follows
(C) Only I and II follows
(D) Only I and III follows
(E) None of these
132. Statements # Some towers are windows. All windows are houses. Some
houses are temples.
Conclusions # I. Some towers are temples.
II. Some houses are towers.
III. Some temples are windows.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only I and II follows
(E) None of these
133. Statements # Some walls are doors. Some doors are cots. Some cots are
chairs.
Conclusions # I. Some chairs are doors.
II. Some cots are walls.
III. No chair is door.
(A) Only II follows
(B) Only III follows
(C) Only either I or III follows
(D) Only I follows
(E) None of these
134. Statements # All trees are gardens. All gardens are stones. All stones ar
e fences.
Conclusions # I. Some fences are gardens.
II. All gardens are fences.
III. Some stones are trees.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only I and III follow
(C) Only II and III follow
(D) All follow
(E) None of these
135. Statements # All books are leaves. Some leaves are jungles. No jungle i
s box.
Conclusions # I. Some jungles are books.
II. No book is box.
III. Some leaves are boxes.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only I and III follow
Directions—(Q. 136–140) Study the follo-wing arrangement carefully and

answer the questions given below—
7 R E T 4 A 9 % D F 1 U # B @ 8 H I © W M H 3 2 V $ 5 N P 6 Q
136. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each o
f which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed
by a number ?
(A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three
(E) More than three
137. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of wh
ich is imme-diately preceded by a letter but not imme-diately followed by
a symbol ?
(A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three
(E) More than three
138. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement, each of wh
ich is immediately followed by a symbol ?
(A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three
(E) More than three
139. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their po
sitions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to that group ?
(A) RTA (B) 9DF
(C) #@H (D) 3V5
(E) IWH
140. Which of the following is the fourth to the left of the twelfth from the l
eft end ?
(A) % (B) 8
(C) 2 (D) H
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 141–145) In each question below is given a group of digits f
ollowed by four combinations of letters/symbols lettered (A), (B), (C), and
(D). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents t
he group of digits based on the coding system and the condi-tions given bel
ow and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the c
ombinations correctly represents the group of digits, mark (E), i.e. ‘None
of these’ as your answer.
Digit # 5 1 3 4 9 6 8 2 7
Letter/symbol # P A K % R @ D © M
Conditions #
(i) If the first digit is odd and the last digit is even, the codes for the first an
d last digits are to be reversed.
(ii) If both the first and the last digits are even, both are to be coded as *.
(iii) If both the first and the last digits are odd, both are to be coded as $.
141. 215349
(A) RAPK%© (B) *APK%*
(C) $APK%$ (D) ©PAK%R
(E) None of these
142. 671254
(A) @MA©P% (B) $MA©P$
(C) *MA©P* (D) %MA©P©
(E) None of these
143. 813469
(A) RAK%@D (B) DAK%@R
(C) DAP%@R (D) *AK%@*
(E) None of these
144. 794821
(A) MR%D©A (B) AR%D©M
(C) M%RD©A (D) $R%D©$
(E) None of these
145. 591426
(A) @RA%©P (B) PRA%©@
(C) @AR%©P (D) $RA%©*
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 146–150) Study the follo-wing information carefully and an
swer the questions given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. D
is second to the left of F and third to the right of H. A is second to the rig
ht of F and an immediate neighbour of H. C is second to the right of B and F i
s third to the right of B. G is not an immediate neighbour of F.
146. How many of them are between H and C ?
(A) Two (B) Three
(C) Two or three (D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
147. Who is the immediate left of A ?
(A) H (B) E
(C) G (D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
148. In which of the following pairs is the first person sitting to the immedia
te left of the second person ?
(A) CD (B) BG
(C) HA (D) FC
(E) None of these
149. Who is fourth to the right of B ?
(A) E (B) C
(C) A (D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
150. What is E’s position with respect to G ?
(A) Second to the right
(B) Third of the left
(C) Third to the right
(D) Second to the left
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 151–155) In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, #,
$ and % are used with the following meaning as illustrated below—
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is either greater than or equal to Q’.
‘P % Q’means ‘P is either smaller than or equal to Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is smaller than Q’.
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is greater than Q’.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be t
rue, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are defi
nitely true ?
Give answer (A), if only Conclusion I is true.
Give answer (B), if only Conclusion II is true.
Give answer (C), if either Conclusion I or II is true.
Give answer (D), if neither Conclusion I nor II is true.
Give answer (E), if both Conclusions I and II are true.
151. Statements : D $ N, N # F, F © T
Conclusions : I. T # N
II. D $ F
152. Statements : K © R, R $ F, F # B
Conclusions : I. B $ R
II. F # K
153. Statements : J $ M, M © K, K # N
Conclusions : I. J $ K
II. N $ M
154. Statements : F # T, T @ W, W $ H
Conclusions : I. F # H
II. F © H
155. Statements : M % T, T # R, R @ D
Conclusions : I. D $ T
II. R $ T

ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATION :-

121. (A) T, R > M > P and T > R
T is the oldest.
122. (C) All the rest are natural while ‘Dam’ is man made.
123. (E) The meaningful words formed with the letters ESRO are : ROS
E, SORE, EROS and SERO.
124. (E) ? = 40 R 8 W 10 T 12 P 16
= 40 ¸ 8 ´ 10 – 12 + 16
= 408 ´ 10 – 12 + 16
= 50 – 12 + 16
= 54
125. (B) 2, 23, 234, 2345, 23456, 234567, 234 5
126. (D)
ON, ST and AB.
127. (A) B ¾® 5 and M ¾® 9
O ¾® 4 O ¾® 4
A ¾® # R ¾® 1
R ¾® 1 E ¾® $
D ¾® 2
Hence
D ¾® 2
R ¾® 1
E ¾® $
A ¾® #
M ¾® 9
128. (D) 50 = (7)2 + 1
65 = (8)2 + 1
170 = (13)2 + 1
290 = (17)2 + 1
But 255 is not like this.
129. (D) 51 22 33 15 66 98 89
130. (B) As, Similarly,
131. (E)
Or
Only I follows.
132. (B)
Or
Only II follows.
133. (C)
Or
Only either I or III follows.
134. (B)
Only I and III follow.
135. (A)
Or
None follows.
136. (C) D F 1 and N P 6
137. (D) T 4 A , F 1 U and P 6 Q
138. (C) U # and I ©
139. (B)
140. (A) 12th element from the left is U and fourth to the left of U is %.
141. (E) 215349 ©APK%R
142. (C) 671254 *MA©P*
143. (B) 813469 DAK%@R
144. (D) 794821 $ R%D©$
145. (A) 591426 @RA%©P
For Qs. 146 to 150
Seating Plan is as shown below—
146. (B) 147. (B) 148. (E) 149. (A) 150. (B)
151. (D) D $ N ® D > N, N # F ® N <> N <> F (False)
152. (B) K © R ® K = R, R $ F ® R > F
and F # B ® F <> F <> R (False)
II. F # K ® F <> M, M © K ® M = K
and K # N ® K <> M = K <> K (True)
II. N $ M ® N > M (False)
154. (D) F # T ® F < t =" W"> H
F < t =" W"> H
I. F # H ® F < r =" D" r =" D"> T (True)
II. R $ T ® R > T (True)
Labels: SBI BANK CLERK REASONING, SBI PREVIOUS SOLVED PAP
ER 0 comments
Posted by Free Exam Original Paper Friday, June 6, 2008 at 10:17 PM
SBI Clerk Reasoning Sample Paper
1 In a certain code RIPPLE is written as 613382 & LIFE is written as 8192.
How is PILLER written in that code ?
(a) 318826 (b) 318286 (c) 618826
(d) 328816 (e) none of these
2 If GIVE is coded as 5137 and BAT is coded as 924, How is GATE coded?
(a) 5427 (b) 5724 (c) 5247
(d) 2547 (e) None of these
3 If PALE, is coded as 2134, EARTH is coded as 41590 , how is PEARL cod
ed in that code?
(a) 29530 (b) 24153 (c) 25413
(d) 25430 (e) None of these
4 If in a certain language , ENTRY is coded as 12345 & STEADY is coded a
s 931785 , then state which is the correct code for the SEDATE
(a) 918731 (b) 954185 (c) 814195
(d) 614781 (e) None of these
5 If in a certain language , ENTRY is coded as 12345 & STEADY is coded a
s 931785, then state which is the correct code for the ENDEAR
(a) 524519 (b) 174189 (c) 128174
(d) 124179 (e) 164983
6 If in a certain language CHARCOAL is coded as 45164913 & MORALE is
coded as 296137 , how is COACH coded in that language
(a) 38137 (b) 49148 (c) 48246 (d) 49145 (e) none of these
7 If in a certain language CHARCOAL is coded as 45164913 & MORALE is
coded as 296137 , how is COLLER coded in that language
(a) 397749 (b) 497758 (c) 483359 (d) 493376 (e) none of these
8 If in a certain language CHARCOAL is coded as 45164913 & MORALE i
s coded as 296137 , how is MECHRALE coded in that language
(a) 95378165 (b) 25378195 (c) 27456137 (d) 27386195 (e) none of these
9 If MISTAKE is coded as 9765412 & Naked is coded as 84123 , then what
will be the code for DISTANT ?
(a) 3765485 (b) 4798165 (c) 3697185
(d) 4768296 (e) none of these
10 If MISTAKE is coded as 9765412 & Naked is coded as 84123 , then wha
t will be the code for NEMISES ?
(a) 7598656 (b) 8597656 (c) 8297626 (d) 435985 (e) none of these
11 If ROPE is coded as 6821 & CHAIR is coded as 73456, then what will
be the code for CRAPE?
(a) 73456 (b) 76421 (c) 77246 (d) 77123 (e) None of these
12 In a certain code, 15789 is written as EGKPT and 2346 is written as ALU
R. How is 23549 written in that code ?
(a) ALEUT (b) ALGTU (c) ALGUT (d) ALGRT (e) None of these
13 In a certain code, a number 13479 is written as AQFJL and 5268 is writ
ten as DMPN. How is 396824 written in that code?
(a) QLPNKJ (b) QLPNMF (c) QLPMNF
(d) QLPNDF (e) None of these
In a certain language 36492 is written as SMILE and 058 is written as RUN,
How are the following figures coded in that language ?
Q:14 33980
(a) SSLNR (b) SSLRN (c) SLSNR
(d) SLNRS (e) None of these
15 6458
(a) MUIN (b) MINU (c) INUM
(d) MIUN (e) IUMN
16 92486
(a) LEIMN (b) ELINR (c) LEINM
(d) EILNM (e) LIENM
17 54324
(a) SIUEI (b) UISEI (c) USIIE
(d) UISIE (e) SUEII
18 90089
(a) NLLRN (b) LRLNN (c) LLRRN
(d) LRRNL (e) RLLNN
19 3425
(a) SEIU (b) SIUE (c) SRUI
(d) RUSI (e) SIEU
20 29463
(a) ELISM (b) ELIMS (c) LIMSE
(d) EILMS (e) None of these
21 If in a certain language PRIVATE is coded as 1234567 & RISK is coded
as 2398, How is RIVETS coded in that language?
(a) 687543 (b) 234769 (c) 496321
(d) 246598 (e) None of these.
22 If PLAY is coded as 8123 &RHYME is coded as 49367, How is MALE c
oded as ?
(a) 6217 (b) 6198 (c) 6395
(d) 6285 (e) None of these
23 In a certain code language 24685 is written as 33776. How is 35791 writt
en in that code.
(a) 44882 (b) 44880 (c) 46682
(d) 44682 (e) None of these.
24 In a certain code language 35796 is written as 44887. How is 35791 writt
en in that code
(a) 57914 (b) 55914 (c) 5934
(d) 5714 (e) None of these.
25 If MINJUR is coded as 312547 & TADA as 6898, How can MADURAI b
e coded as?
(a) 3498178 (b) 3894871 (c) 384971
(d) 3894781 (e) None of these.
ANSWER SHEET
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
a c b a c d d c a c b c b a d
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
c b d e b b a a b d
Answers With Explantion :-
1. The alphabets are coded as shown i. e. P as 3, I as 1, L as 8, E as 2, & R
as 6. So, PILLER is coded as 318826.
2. The alphabets are coded as shown i. e. G as 5, A as 2, T as 4 & E as 7.
So GATE is coded as 5247.
3. The alphabets are coded as shown i. e. p AS 2, E as 4, A as 1, R as 5, &
L as 3. So PEARL is coded as 24153.
4. S is coded as 9, E as 1, D as 8, A as 7 & T as 3. So SEDATE is coded as
918731.
5. E is coded as 1, N as 2, D as 8, A as 7 & R as 4. So ENDEAR is coded a
s 128174.
6. C is coded as 4, O as 9, A as 1 & H as 5.
7. C is code as 4, O as 9, L as 3, E as 7, & R as 6. So, COLLER is coded as
493376.
8. M is coded as 2, E as 7, C as 4, H as 5, R as 6, A as 1 & L as 3. So,
MECHRALE is coded as 27456137.
9. D is coded as 3, I as 7, S as 6, T as 5, A as 4, & N as 8. So the DISTANT
is coded as 3765485.
10. N is coded as 8, E as 2, M as 9, I as 7 & S as 6. So NEMISES is coded
as 8297626.
11. C is coded as 7, R as 6, A as 4, P as 2, & E as 1. So CRAPE is coded as
76421.
12. 2 is coded as A, 3 as L, 5 as G, 4 as U & 9 as T. So 23549 is coded as
ALGUT.
13. 3 is coded as Q, 9 as L, 6 as P, 8 as N, 2 as M & 4 as F. So 396824 is
coded as QLPNMF.
14. 3 is coded as S, 9 as L, 8 as N & 0 as R. So 33980 is coded as SSLNR.
15. 6 is coded as M, 4 as 1, 5 as U & 8 as N. So 6458 is coded as MIUN.
16. 9 is coded as L, 2 as E, 4 as I, 8 as N, & 6 as M. So, 92486 is coded as
LEINM.
17. 5 is coded U, 4 as I, 3 as S & 2 as E. So 54324 is coded as UISEI.
18. 9 is coded as L, 0 as R & 8 as N. So, 90089 is coded as LRRNL.
19. 3 is coded as S, 4 as I, 2 as E & 5 as U. So 3425 is coded as SIEU.
20. 2 is coded as E, 9 as L, 4 as I, 6 as M & 3 as S. So, 29463 is coded as
ELIMS.
21. R is coded as 2, I as 3, V as 4, E as 7, T as 6 & S as 9. So, RIVETS is c
oded as 234769.
22. Here M is coded as 6 , A is coded as 2 , L is coded as 1 , E is coded as 7
, therefore male is coded as 6217
23. In the code the letters at odd places are one place ahead & those at even
places are one place before the corresponding letter in the word. So in 3579
1, 3is written as 4, 5 as 4,7 as 8, 9 as 8 & 1 as 0. The code becomes 44880.
24. 4 will be written as 5, 5 as 6, 8 as 9, 2 as 1, 3 as 4. So the code is 5914.
25. Code is M as 3, A as 8, D as 9, U as 4, R as, 7 & I as 1. So, MADHRI i
s coded as 3894781.
Labels: BANK PO REASONING, SBI BANK CLERK REASONING 0 comments
SBI CLERK REASONING ABILITY MODEL PAPER 2008
Posted by Free Exam Original Paper Tuesday, June 3, 2008 at 4:52 AM
SBI CLERK REASONING ABILITY MODEL PAPER
Directions : – Select the related letters / word / number / figure from the giv
en alternatives
1 Editor : Magazine
(a) Movie (b) Scene
(c) Drama (d) Director
2 Hinduism , Christianity , Islam : Religion
(a) Ear , Nose , Eyesight : Vision (b) Plus , Minus , Multiple : division
(c) Winter , Spring , Summer : Season (d) Humid , Hot , Tundra : Region
3 WOLF : FLOW :: WARD : ?
(a) BROW (b) DRAW
(c) CRAW (d) SLAW
4 GRAIN : TIZRM :: BRAIN : ?
(a) XRIKL (b) YIZRM(c) OPRST (d) ASQMI
5 CUT : BDTVSU :: TIP : ?
(a) UVHJOQ (b) SUHJOQ
(c) USJHQO (d) SUJHOQ
Q-6 19 : 59 :: 17 : ?
(a) 51 (b) 53
(c) 55 (d) 57
Q-7 14 : 20 :: 16 : ?
(a) 23 (b) 48
(c) 10 (d) 42
Q-8 100 : 102 :: 100000 : ?
(a) 105 (b) 104
(c) 1003 (d) 1004
DIRECTIONS : (QUESTIONS 9 to 13) select the one which is different from
the other three .
9
(a) Mile (b) Centimeter
(c) Litre (d) Yard
10
(a) High – Up (b) Past – Present
(c) Often – Seldom (d) Fresh – Stale
11
(a) 11 – 127 (b) 9 – 85
(c) 7 – 53 (d) 5 – 29
12
(a) 26 Z (b) 24 X
(c) 22 V (d) 20 S
13
(a) 8 , 64 , 112 (b) 36 , 6 , 206
(c) 48 , 4 , 202 (d) 9 , 27 , 263
14 In the following series of numerals , which digit has maximum frequency
?
846734378344563464348
(a) 8 (b) 6
(c) 4 (d) 3
15 If the day after tomorrow is Friday , what day will the third day after to
morrow be
(a) Saturday (b) Monday
(c) Sunday (d) Friday
16 If the ratio of the area of two squares is 16 : 1 , then the ratio of their per
imeter is
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 16 : 1
(c) 1 : 3 (d) 3 : 4
17 The shade of 18 ft high pole is 20 ft. . Find the length of shade of 27 ft long pole .
(a) 36 ft (b) 30 ft
(c) 34 ft (d) 40 ft
18 A scores more runs than B but less than C . D scores more than B but les
s than A . Who is the lowest scorer ?
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D
19 In the alphabets from A to Z , which is the third letter to the right of t
he letter which is midway between K & S ?
(a) R (b) Q
(c) P (d) O
20 If first November falls on Monday , then what day will the 25th Novembe
r be ?
(a) Tuesday (b) Thursday
(c) Wednesday (d) Friday
21 The length of room is twice its breadth . If the area of the room is 242 sq
meters , then find out its breadth
(a) 11 (b) 10
(c) 12 (d) 9
22 If the product of two numbers is 10 & their sum is 7 , then the larger of
the two number is -
(a) – 2 (b) 2
(c) 5 (d) 3
23 Which letter is used only in one of the given words ?
Speak , Reap , Shark
(a) S (b) P
(c) K (d) H
24 A tortoise covers one kilometer in 4 hours . It takes rest for 20 minutes
after every kilometer .How much time does it takes for the tortoise to cover
3.5 kilometers ?
(a) 14 hours (b) 13
(c) 15 (d) 12
25 Of which of the following words , which one will be at the 3rd position in
the dictionary ?
1. socks 2. Shocks
3. Sharp 4. snooker
(a) 4 (b) 3
(c) 2 (d) 1
ANSWER
1 2 3 4 5
c c b b b
6 7 8 9 10
b d a c a
11 12 13 14 15
a d a c c
16 17 18 19 20
a b b a b
21 22 23 24 25
a c d c a
Labels: BANK PO REASONING, SBI BANK CLERK REASONING 0 com
ments
FREE SBI REASONING SOLVED PAPER
Posted by Free Exam Original Paper at 4:04 AM
FREE SBI REASONING SOLVED PAPER
1 In a certain code RIPPLE is written as 613382 & LIFE is written as 8192.
How is PILLER written in that code ?
(a) 318826 (b) 318286 (c) 618826
(d) 328816 (e) none of these
2 If GIVE is coded as 5137 and BAT is coded as 924, How is GATE coded?
(a) 5427 (b) 5724 (c) 5247
(d) 2547 (e) None of these
3 If PALE, is coded as 2134, EARTH is coded as 41590 , how is PEARL cod
ed in that code?
(a) 29530 (b) 24153 (c) 25413
(d) 25430 (e) None of these
4 If in a certain language , ENTRY is coded as 12345 & STEADY is coded a
s 931785 , then state which is the correct code for the SEDATE
(a) 918731 (b) 954185 (c) 814195
(d) 614781 (e) None of these
5 If in a certain language , ENTRY is coded as 12345 & STEADY is coded a
s 931785, then state which is the correct code for the ENDEAR
(a) 524519 (b) 174189 (c) 128174
(d) 124179 (e) 164983
6 If in a certain language CHARCOAL is coded as 45164913 & MORALE is
coded as 296137 , how is COACH coded in that language
(a) 38137 (b) 49148 (c) 48246 (d) 49145 (e) none of these
7 If in a certain language CHARCOAL is coded as 45164913 & MORALE is
coded as 296137 , how is COLLER coded in that language
(a) 397749 (b) 497758 (c) 483359 (d) 493376 (e) none of these
8 If in a certain language CHARCOAL is coded as 45164913 & MORALE i
s coded as 296137 , how is MECHRALE coded in that language
(a) 95378165 (b) 25378195 (c) 27456137 (d) 27386195 (e) none of these
9 If MISTAKE is coded as 9765412 & Naked is coded as 84123 , then what
will be the code for DISTANT ?
(a) 3765485 (b) 4798165 (c) 3697185
(d) 4768296 (e) none of these
10 If MISTAKE is coded as 9765412 & Naked is coded as 84123 , then wha
t will be the code for NEMISES ?
(a) 7598656 (b) 8597656 (c) 8297626 (d) 435985 (e) none of these
11 If ROPE is coded as 6821 & CHAIR is coded as 73456, then what will
be the code for CRAPE?
(a) 73456 (b) 76421 (c) 77246
(d) 77123 (e) None of these
12 In a certain code, 15789 is written as EGKPT and 2346 is written as ALU
R. How is 23549 written in that code ?
(a) ALEUT (b) ALGTU (c) ALGUT
(d) ALGRT (e) None of these
13 In a certain code, a number 13479 is written as AQFJL and 5268 is writ
ten as DMPN. How is 396824 written in that code?
(a) QLPNKJ (b) QLPNMF (c) QLPMNF
(d) QLPNDF (e) None of these
In a certain language 36492 is written as SMILE and 058 is written as RUN,
How are the following figures coded in that language ?
Q:14 33980
(a) SSLNR (b) SSLRN (c) SLSNR
(d) SLNRS (e) None of these
15 6458
(a) MUIN (b) MINU (c) INUM
(d) MIUN (e) IUMN
16 92486
(a) LEIMN (b) ELINR (c) LEINM
(d) EILNM (e) LIENM
17 54324
(a) SIUEI (b) UISEI (c) USIIE
(d) UISIE (e) SUEII
18 90089
(a) NLLRN (b) LRLNN (c) LLRRN
(d) LRRNL (e) RLLNN
19 3425
(a) SEIU (b) SIUE (c) SRUI (d) RUSI (e) SIEU
20 29463
(a) ELISM (b) ELIMS (c) LIMSE
(d) EILMS (e) None of these
21 If in a certain language PRIVATE is coded as 1234567 & RISK is coded
as 2398, How is RIVETS coded in that language?
(a) 687543 (b) 234769 (c) 496321
(d) 246598 (e) None of these.
22 If PLAY is coded as 8123 &RHYME is coded as 49367, How is MALE c
oded as ?
(a) 6217 (b) 6198 (c) 6395
(d) 6285 (e) None of these
23 In a certain code language 24685 is written as 33776. How is 35791 writt
en in that code.
(a) 44882 (b) 44880 (c) 46682
(d) 44682 (e) None of these.
24 In a certain code language 35796 is written as 44887. How is 35791 writt
en in that code
(a) 57914 (b) 55914 (c) 5934
(d) 5714 (e) None of these.
25 If MINJUR is coded as 312547 & TADA as 6898, How can MADURAI b
e coded as?
(a) 3498178 (b) 3894871 (c) 384971
(d) 3894781 (e) None of these.
ANSWER SHEET
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
a c b a c d d c a c b c b a d
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
c b d e b b a a b d
Answers With Explantion :-
1. The alphabets are coded as shown i. e. P as 3, I as 1, L as 8, E as 2, & R
as 6. So, PILLER is coded as 318826.
2. The alphabets are coded as shown i. e. G as 5, A as 2, T as 4 & E as 7.
So GATE is coded as 5247.
3. The alphabets are coded as shown i. e. p AS 2, E as 4, A as 1, R as 5, &
L as 3. So PEARL is coded as 24153.
4. S is coded as 9, E as 1, D as 8, A as 7 & T as 3. So SEDATE is coded as
918731.
5. E is coded as 1, N as 2, D as 8, A as 7 & R as 4. So ENDEAR is coded a
s 128174.
6. C is coded as 4, O as 9, A as 1 & H as 5.
7. C is code as 4, O as 9, L as 3, E as 7, & R as 6. So, COLLER is coded as 493376.
8. M is coded as 2, E as 7, C as 4, H as 5, R as 6, A as 1 & L as 3. So,
MECHRALE is coded as 27456137.
9. D is coded as 3, I as 7, S as 6, T as 5, A as 4, & N as 8. So the DISTANT
is coded as 3765485.
10. N is coded as 8, E as 2, M as 9, I as 7 & S as 6. So NEMISES is coded
as 8297626.
11. C is coded as 7, R as 6, A as 4, P as 2, & E as 1. So CRAPE is coded as
76421.
12. 2 is coded as A, 3 as L, 5 as G, 4 as U & 9 as T. So 23549 is coded as
ALGUT.
13. 3 is coded as Q, 9 as L, 6 as P, 8 as N, 2 as M & 4 as F. So 396824 is
coded as QLPNMF.
14. 3 is coded as S, 9 as L, 8 as N & 0 as R. So 33980 is coded as SSLNR.
15. 6 is coded as M, 4 as 1, 5 as U & 8 as N. So 6458 is coded as MIUN.
16. 9 is coded as L, 2 as E, 4 as I, 8 as N, & 6 as M. So, 92486 is coded as
LEINM.
17. 5 is coded U, 4 as I, 3 as S & 2 as E. So 54324 is coded as UISEI.
18. 9 is coded as L, 0 as R & 8 as N. So, 90089 is coded as LRRNL.
19. 3 is coded as S, 4 as I, 2 as E & 5 as U. So 3425 is coded as SIEU.
20. 2 is coded as E, 9 as L, 4 as I, 6 as M & 3 as S. So, 29463 is coded as
ELIMS.
21. R is coded as 2, I as 3, V as 4, E as 7, T as 6 & S as 9. So, RIVETS is c
oded as 234769.
22. Here M is coded as 6 , A is coded as 2 , L is coded as 1 , E is coded as 7
, therefore male is coded as 6217
23. In the code the letters at odd places are one place ahead & those at even
places are one place before the corresponding letter in the word. So in 3579
1, 3is written as 4, 5 as 4,7 as 8, 9 as 8 & 1 as 0. The code becomes 44880.
24. 4 will be written as 5, 5 as 6, 8 as 9, 2 as 1, 3 as 4. So the code is 5914.
25. Code is M as 3, A as 8, D as 9, U as 4, R as, 7 & I as 1. So, MADHRI i
s coded as 3894781.
BANK PO GENERAL INTELLIGENCE ABILITY SOLVED PAPER
1.If GRAMMAR is written as MAMRAGR, the ENGLISH is written as:
(a) LIGNSEH
(b) GINESHL
(c) LGINSEH
(d) NHSELGI
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
2. Which of the following replaces the question mark?
MILD : NKOH :: GATE?
(a) HCWI
(b) HDVQ
(c) IBUP
(d) HDUR
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
3. If DBMDVUUB stands for Calcutta, How will you write Bombay?
(a) DQUDDXB
(b) CPMCBZ
(c) DPNCB
(d) CPNCBZ
(e) None of these
Ans (d
4.Insert the word that completes the first word and begins the second Clue: boy BAL(….)DER
(a) ERS
(b) OCK
(c) LAD
(d) LIES
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
5. A man travels three miles due North, then travels eight miles due East and further travels three miles due North. How far is he from the starting point?
(a) 14 miles
(b) 10 miles
(c) 100 miles
(d) 15 miles
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
6. Which is the wrong member among the following?
(a) Microscope
(b) Stethoscope
(c) Telescope
(d) Periscope
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
7. From the following select the member that does not belong to the set
(a) Whale
(b) Crocodile
(c) Lizard
(d) Snake
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
8. Which is not related in the following set?
(a) Othello
(b) King Lear
(c) Macbeth
(d) Oliver TwistV
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
9. Which is the wrong member in the following set?
(a) Graphite
(b) Diamond
(c) Pearl
(d) Coal
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
10. From the following select the word that does not belong to the set
(a) Cube
(b) Rectangle
(c) Rhombus
(d) Square
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
11. If in a certain code TWENTY is written as 863985 and ELEVEN is wr
itten as 323039 how is TWELVE written?
(a) 863584
(b) 863203
(c) 863903
(d) 863063
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
12. Showing a man Saroj said: “He is the brother of my Uncle’s daughter”. W
hat is the relation of Saroj with that man?
(a) Son
(b) Brother-in-law
(c) Nephew
(d) Cousin
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
13.In a certain code MONKEY is written as XDJMNL. How is TIGER writte
n in that code?
(a) SDFHS
(b) SHFDQ
(c) QDFHS
(d) UJHFS
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
14.Choose the subject which is different from others
(a) Mathematics
(b) Arithmetic
(c) Geometry
(d) Algebra
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
15. Aluminium is to Bauxite as iron is to
(a) Pyrite
(b) Haematite
(c) Magnesite
(d) Iron Oxide
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
16. Which among the following is different from others?
(a) DE
(b) PQ
(c) TU
(d) MO
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
17. Which is the odd pair of words different from the following sets?
(a) Blacksmith : Anvil
(b) Carpenter : Saw
(c) Goldsmith : Ornaments
(d) Barber : Scissor
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
18. Which is the pair like Triangle : Hexagon?
(a) Cone : Sphere
(b) Rectangle : Octagon
(c) Pentagon : Heptagon
(d) Triangle : Quadrilateral
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
19. Bag is related to luggage in the same way as ship is related to
(a) Cargo
(b) Coal
(c) Stock
(d) Weight
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
20. Moon : Satellite :: Earth : ?
(a) sun
(b) solar system
(c) asteroid
(d) planet
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
21. Select the pair which has the same relationship as the given pair Traveler: Destination
(a) Beggar : Donation
(b) Teacher : Education
(c) Refugee : Shelter
(d) Accident : Hospital
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
22. A man is facing north-west. He turns 90o in the clockwise direction and then 1350 in the anticlockwise direction. Which direction is he facing now?
(a) east
(b) west
(c) north
(d) south
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
23. Which is the irregular member of the following group?
(a) RQPA
(b) MLKA
(c) STUA
(d) HGFA
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
24.Choose which is least like the other words in the group?
(a) Club
(b) hotel
(c) hostel
(d) inn
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
25. Which among the following is same as Violet : Orange : Yellow?
(a) Purple
(b) White
(c) Pink
(d) Blue
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
SBI CLERK REASONING ABILITY SOLVED PAPER
1.(i) ‘P× Q’ means ‘Q’ is mother of ‘P’.
(ii) ‘P × Q’ means ‘P’ is brother of ‘Q’.
(iii) ‘P – Q’ means ‘P’ is sister of ‘Q’.
(iv) ‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘Q is father of ‘P’.
Which of the following definitely means R is grandson of K?
(a) R × T ÷ K
(b) M + R × T ÷ K
(c) M – R × T ÷ K
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these.
Ans (e)
2. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 95137248 each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when they are arranged in ascending order?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three.
Ans (b)
3. In a certain code PATHOLOGIST is written as PIUBQKSRHFN. How is CONTROVERSY written in that code?
(a) SUOPDNXRQDU
(b) SUOPDNZTSFW
(c) QSMNBPXRQDU
(D) QSMNBPZTSFW
(e) None of these.
Ans (a)
4. In a certain code PATHOLOGIST is written as PIUBQKSRHFN. How is CONTROVERSY written in that code?
(a) SUOPDNXRQDU
(b) SUOPDNZTSFW
(c) QSMNBPXRQDU
(D) QSMNBPZTSFW
(e) None of these.
Ans (a)
5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) Food : Hunger
(b) Water : Thirst
(c) Air : Suffocation
(d) Talent : Education
(e) Leg : Lame
Ans (d)
6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) Crow
(b) Vulture
(c) Bat
(d) Ostrich
(e) Eagle
Ans (c)
7. Which of the following has the same relationship as that of Money : weal
th?
(a) Pity : Kindness
(b) Cruel : Anger
(c) Wise : Education
(d) Pride : Humility
(e) None of these.
Ans (a)
8. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) 29
(b) 85
(c) 147
(d) 125
(e) 53
Ans (d)
9. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the second, the sixth and the ninth letters of the word PERMEABILITY, which of the following willbe the first letter of that word? If no such word can be formed give ‘N’ asthe answer. If only two such words can be formed give ‘D’ as the answer and if more than two such words can be formed give ‘Z’ as the answer.
(a) M
(b) L
(c) N
(d) D
(e) Z
Ans (e)
10. In a certain code language BEAM is written as 5%*K and COME is written as $7K%. How is ‘BOMB’ written in that code?
(a) 5%K5
(b) 57K5
(c) $7K$
(d) 5$%5
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
11. Find the number of days from 26-1-1996 to 15-5-1996 (both days inclus
ive)
(a) 110
(b) 112
(c) 111
(d) 113
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
12. Find the wrong number in the following sequence: 22, 33, 66, 99, 121, 2
79, 594
(a) 279
(b) 594
(c) 121
(d) 33
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
13. A father is now three times as old as his son. Five years back he was four times as old as his son. What is the age of the son now?
(a) 12
(b) 15
(c) 18
(d) 20
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
14. How many times between 4 a.m and 4 p.m will the hands of a clock cros
s?
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 11
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
15. Five students are sitting in row. T is on right of Z. M is on the left of Z but is on the right of L. T is on the left of Q. Who is sitting first from the l eft? Here students are represented by the letters T, Z, M, L and Q
(a) Z
(b) T
(c) Q
(d) L
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
16. ANGER : 37219 : : NEAR:
(a) 7219
(b) 9132
(c) 1372
(d) 7139
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
17. What is the letter immediately to the right of the letter which is seven letters to the right of ‘W’, considering all the letters of the alphabet written in reverse order from left to right starting from ‘Z’
(a) R
(b) O
(c) M
(d) Q
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
18. If the first day of the year 1990 was a Monday, what day of the week wa
s the 1st January 1998?
(a) Thursday
(b) Tuesday
(c) Wednesday
(d) Friday
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
19. If “good and bad” is coded as 123, “bad is ugly” is coded as 245 and “goo
d is fair” is coded as 436, then what is the code for “fair”?
(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 5
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
20. Choose the one from the following which is different from others
(a) pen and pencil
(b) tailer and shirt
(c) scooter and cycle
(d) sword and riffle
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
21. If 2 = 1, 3 = 3, 4 = 12, 5 = 60 then 6 = …..?
(a) 120
(b) 180
(c) 720
(d) 360
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
22. What is the next letter of the series, F, I, L, O, …..?
(a) M
(b) N
(c) R
(d) P
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
23. How many ’5′ s are there which are followed by 0 and preceded by 0 in t he following series 157050700512515050050
(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 3
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
24. A boy goes to see a movie and sees a man sitting to his left. He found that the man was his relative. The man is the husband of the sister of his mo ther. How is the man related to the boy?
(a) Uncle
(b) Nephew
(c) Brother
(d) Father
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
25. A person traveled 20 km in the northward direction, then traveled 4 km in eastward direction, then traveled 10 km in the northward direction again, then traveled 3 km in the eastward direction and finally traveled 6 km in th e southward direction. How far is he from the starting point?
(a) 17 km
(b) 37 km
(c) 31 km
(d) 25 km
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
SBI CLERK REASONING ABILITY
1.Study each of the following table and choose the alternative which can best replace the question mark (?)
1 2 3 2 10 12
2 5 12 10 16 13
1 2 1 ? 10 24
(a) 5 (b) 11 (c) 13 (d) 8
Ans (c)
2. Study each of the following table and choose the alternative which can be
st replace the question mark (?)
3 8 10 2 ? 1
6 56 90 2 20 0
(a) 0 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7
Ans (c)
3.In the following question one term in the number series is wrong. Find ou
t the wrong term.
11, 5, 20, 12, 40, 26, 74, 54
(a) 5 (b) 20 (c) 40 (d) 26
Ans (c)
4. In the following question one term in the number series is wrong. Find ou
t the wrong term.
8, 14, 26, 48, 98, 194, 386
(a) 14 (b) 48 (c) 98 (d) 194
Ans (b)
5. Calculate value of each word by the following formula:
Consonants = (2 × Position of the letter in alphabet) – 1
Vowels = (3 × Position in alphabet) + 1
CHANGE
(a) 77 (b) 79 (c) 83 (d) 80
Ans (d)
6. Calculate value of each word by the following formula:
Consonants = (2 × Position of the letter in alphabet) – 1
Vowels = (3 × Position in alphabet) + 1
FLUTE
(a) 153 (b) 157 (c) 151 (d) 149
Ans (a)
7. Calculate value of each word by the following formula:
Consonants = (2 × Position of the letter in alphabet) – 1
Vowels = (3 × Position in alphabet) + 1
BREAD
(a) 67 (b) 62 (c) 59 (d) 65
Ans (d)
8. In a certain code language, ’3a, 2b, 7c’ means ‘Truth is Eternal’; ’7c, 9a,
8b, 3a’ means ‘Enmity is not Eternal’ and 6a, 4d, 2b, 8b’ means ‘Truth does n
ot perish’. Which of the following means ‘enmity’ in that language?
(a) 3a (b) 7c (c) 8b (d) 9a
Ans (d)
9. In a certain code language, ‘po ki top ma’ means ‘Usha is playing cards’;
‘Kop ja ki ma’ means ‘Asha is playing tennis’; ki top sop ho’ means ‘they are
playing football’; and ‘po sur kop’ means ‘cards and tennis’. Which word in
that language means ‘Asha’?
(a) ja (b) ma (c) kop (d) top
Ans (a)
10. A girl was born on September 6, 1970, which happened to be a Sunday.
Her birthday has again fall on Sunday in
(a) 1975 (b) 1976 (c) 1977 (d) 1981
Ans (d)
11. A long rope has to be cut to make 23 small pieces. If it is double folded
to start with how many times does it need to be cut?
(a) 9 (b) 23 (c) 11 (d) 12
Ans (c)
12. There are 19 hockey players in a club. On a particular day 14 were we
aring the hockey shirts prescribed, while 11 were wearing the prescribed
hockey pants. None of them was without either hockey pants or hockey shir
ts. How many were in complete hockey uniform?
(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 7
Ans (b)
13. In a class room three fourth of the boys are above 160 cm in height and th
ey are 18 in number. Also out of the total strength, the boys form only two th
ird and the rest are girls. The total number of girls in the class is
(a) 18 (b) 24 (c) 12 (d) 30
Ans (c)
14. ‘A’ is east of ‘B’ and west of ‘C’. ‘H’ is South-West of ‘C’, ‘B’ is South-Ea
st of ‘X’. which is farthest West?
(a) C (b) A (c) X (d) B
Ans (c)
15. A girl earns twice as much in December as in each of the other months.
What part of her entire year’s earning does she earn in December?
(a) 2/11 (b) 2/13 (c) 3/14 (d) 1/6
Ans (b)
16. One watch is 1 minute slow at 1 pm on Tuesday and 2 minutes fast at 1 pm on Thursday. When did it show the correct time?
(a) 1.00 am on Wednesday (b) 5.00 am on Wednesday (c) 1.00 pm on Wed nesday (d) 5.00 pm on Wednesday Directions (Question 17 to 22) :Given a statement followed by two assumpti ons numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the followin g assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the state ment.
Mark (a) if only assumption I is implicit
Mark (b) if only assumption II is implicit
Mark (c) if either I or II is implicit
Mark (d) if neither I or II is implicit
17.Statement: Even with the increase in the number of sugar factories in Indi
a. We still continue to import sugar.
Assumptions :I. The consumption of sugar per capita has increased in India.
II. Many of the factories are not in a position to produce sugar to their fulles
t capacity.
Ans (c)
18.Statement :I cannot contact you on phone from Karshik.
Assumption : I. Telephone facility is not available at Karshik.
II. Nowadays it is difficult to contact on phone.
Ans (b)
19.Statement : The government has decided to reduce the custom duty on co
mputer peripherals.
Assumptions : I. The domestic market price of computer peripherals may go
up in near future.
II. the domestic manufacturers may oppose the decision.
Ans (a)
20. Statement : In Bombay, railway trains are indispensable for people in th e suburbs to reach their places of work on time. Assumptions : I. Railway trains are the only mode of transport available in the suburbs of Bombay.
II. Only railway trains run punctually.
Ans (a)
21. Statement :The private bus services in the city has virtually collapsed b
ecause of the ongoing strike of its employees.
Assumptions : I. Going on strikes has become the right of every employee.
II. People no more require the services of private bus operators.
Ans (b)
22. Statement : Detergents should be used. to clean clothes.
Assumptions : I. Detergents from more lather.
II. Detergents help to dislodge grease and dirt.
Ans (d)
23. Which letter when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete the
matrix?
A D H
F I M
? N R
(a) P (b) N (c) K (c) O
Ans (c)
24. Which letter when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete the
matrix?
A M B N
R C S D
E U F ?
(a) T (b) F (c) V (d) R
Ans (c)
25. Which number when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete t
he matrix?
1 4 9 ?
1 2 3 4
2 4 6 ?
(a) 16 and 8 (b) 36 and 4 (c) 25 and 5 (d) 49 and 7
Ans (a)
26. Which number when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete t
he matrix?
6 6 8
5 7 5
4 3 ?
120 126 320
(a) 12 (b) 16 (c) 8 (d) 4
Ans (c)
27. In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given stateme nts to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known fac ts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from t wo given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Read both the stat ements and give answer as:
(a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either I or II follows. (d) If neither I nor II follows.
Statements: I. Many scooters are trucks. II. All trucks are trains
Conclusions: I. Some scooters are trains. II. No truck is a scooter.
Ans (a)
28. In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given stateme nts to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from t wo given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Read both the stat ements and give answer as:
(a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either I or II follows. (d) If neither I nor II follows.
Statements: I. All cars are cats. II. All fans are cats.
Conclusions: I. All cars are fans. II. Some fans are cars.
Ans (d)
29. In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given stateme nts to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known fac ts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from t wo given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Read both the stat ements and give answer as:
(a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either I or II follows. (d) If neither I nor II follows.
Statements: I. All pilots are experts. II. All authors are pilots.
Conclusions: I. All authors are experts. II. No expert in an author.
Ans (a)

30.In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statemen ts to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known fact s and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from tw o given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Read both the state ments and give answer as:
(a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either I or II follows. (d) If neither I nor II follows.
Statements: I. Some doctors are institutes. II. Some crooks are institutes.
Conclusions: I. All institutes are doctors. II. Some institutes are crooks.
Ans (b)
1.Accident is related to Carefulness in the same way as Disease is related to
(a) Sanitation
(b) Treatment
(c) Medicine
(d) Doctor
Ans (a) Lack of second results in the first
2. Aflatoxin is related to Food poisoning in the same way as Histamine is rel
ated to
(a) Allergy
(b) Headache
(c) Anthrax
(d) Inhabited Ans (a) First causes the second
3. Ostrich is related to Antelope in the same way as Egret is related to
(a) Cow
(b) Buffalo
(c) Camel
(d) Zebra
Ans (b) Both live together to derive benefits from each other
4. Hong Kong is related to China in the same way as Vatican is related to..?…
(a) Canada
(b) Mexico
(c) North America
(d) Rome
Ans (d) Hong Kong is a city in china. Similarly, Vatican is a city in Rome
5. Forfeit related to Surrender in the same way as Remit is related to
(a) Perceive
(b) Confiscate
(c) Exempt
(d) Refrain
Ans (d) The words in each pair are synonyms
Directions (questins 6 to 10): Each of the questions below consists of a qu
estion and two statements marked I and II given below it. You have to decid
e whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
question. Read both the statements and give answer
(a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, whi
le the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) If the data in statements I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
, while the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(c) If the data either in statement I or in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
(d) If the data even in both the statements I and II together are not sufficien
t to answer the question.
(e) If the data in both statements I and II together are needed to answer the question.
6. What does ‘Ne’ stands for in the code language?
I. ‘Na Ni Nok Ne’ means ‘I will tell you’ and ‘Ni Nok Ne Nam’ means ‘he will
tell you’ in that code language.
II. ‘Ni Ne Mo Nam’ means ‘will he call you’ and ‘Ne Mok Sac Ni’ means ‘how
will you go’ in that code language.
Ans (d)
7. Who amongst P, Q, R, S, T and U is the tallest?
I. P is taller that R and T but not as tall as U, who is taller than Q and S.
II. R is the third in height in the ascending order and not as tall as U, P and Q
, Q being taller than P but not the tallest.
Ans (c)
8. Who among A, B, C, D, E & F read the book last?
I. F, who gave the book to B after reading, was third to read the same.
II. C, who read the book after A, was the third person to read the book befor
e it reached E.
Ans (d)
9. Who is paternal uncle of Pavan?
I. Pavan is brother of Poornima, who is daughter of Meena, who is sister of Kumar, who is brother Smrithi.
II. Prithvi is brother of Indrajith, who is husband of Poornima, who is mothe
r of Ganga, who is sister of Pavan.
Ans (b) 1
What is Milan’s rank in the class of 44 students?
I. Ramesh, whose rank is 17th in the class, is ahead of Shyam by 6 ranks, Shyam being 7 ranks ahead of Milan. II. Suketu is 26 ranks ahead of Milan and Shyamala is 6 ranks behind Milan while Savita stands exactly in the middle of Shyamala and Suketu in ranks , her rank being 17. Ans (c) Directions (questions 11 to 15): Read the fol lowing information and answer the questions given below.
(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven members standing in a row (not necessarily in the same order) facing north.
(ii) C and B have as many members between them as G and C have between them.
(iii) D, who is 3rd from the extreme left, is 3rd to the left of E.
(iv) A and D are neighbors and F and C are neighbors.
11. Which of the following statements may be false?
(a) A is the 3rd to the left of F
(b) D is 3rd to the left of E
(c) F is 3rd the right of A
(d) B is 3rd to the left of C
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
12. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) C and E are neighbors
(b) E is to the immediate left of F
(c) C is to the immediate left of D
(d) A is to the immediate left of D
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
13. Who is at the extreme right?
(a) Data inadequate
(b) G
(c) B
(d) E
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
14. Which of the following given two pairs of neighbors?
(a) A, C and D, C
(b) A, B and E, G
(c) D, C and E, F
(d) C, F and C, E
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
15. What is the position of F?
(a) Immediate to the right of E.
(b) Third to the left of G
(c) Immediate to the left of C
(d) 5th to the right of B
(e) None of these Ans (e)
16. Four of the following five groups of letters are alike in some way while o ne is different. Find out which one is different.
(a) ISLOJ
(b) LUOQM
(c) AKDGB
(d) FPILG
(e) NXQTO
Ans (b)
17. In the sequence given below the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit ’4′ exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 4 and sum of the two digits which immediately follow the d igit 6 exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digi t 6. How many such 4′s and 6′s together are there?
5 4 4 6 2 6 3 5 6 4 2 8 4 3 7 6 6 4 8 3
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 5
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
18. Below are given six three-digit numbers. The digits comprise of numeric and letters. The letter indicates its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle digit of the 4th number when the numbers are arrange d in the descending order after interchanging numeric in each number without altering the place of letter in the number?
19F, 2H9, 98B, D76, 7A6, 61E
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) None of these
Ans (e)
Directions (questions19 to 20): In a code language any letter which is immed iately after or before a vowel in the English alphabet is substituted by tha t vowel and any vowel i.e. A, E, I, O and U is substituted by the letter imm ediately following that vowel in the English alphabet.
19. How can the word FEVERISH be written in that code language?
(a) EDVDRJSI
(b) EFUFRHSI
(c) EFUFRJSI
(d) EDUFRJSI
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
20. How can the word CONFEDERATION be written in that code language ?
(a) CPOGFEDRBUTPO
(b) CPOEFEFRBUJPO
(c) CNOEFEFRBUHNO
(d) CONFFDERATION
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
21. If each of the vowels i.e. A, E, I, O, & U along with the 3rd letter to it s right in the alphabet are taken out and arranged one after the other in the same order followed by the remaining letters of the alphabet, which of the fol lowing will be 5th to the left of the 19th letter from the left in the new arr angement?
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
(a) G
(b) H
(c) J
(d) W
(e) none of these
Ans (a)
22. How many pairs of letters are there in the word SPONTANEOUS which ha ve number of letters between them in the word one less than the number o f letters between them in English alphabet?
(a) five
(b) one
(c) four
(d) Two
(e) Three
Ans (a)
23. Four of the following five have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?
(a) BROTHER : DORVEHT
(b) ENGLISH : GGNNSIJ
(c) ANOTHER : CONVEHT
(d) BETWEEN : DTEZEEP
(e) HUSBAND : JSUDNAF
Ans (d)
24. Which pair of the letters in the word BEAUTIFUL has the same relationship between its letters with respect to their position in the English alphabet as the pair EA in that word has between its letters?
(a) IB
(b) LF
(c) IE
(d) FL
(e) TL
Ans (c)
25. Which of the following relates to FLOWER in the same way as RTER BN relates to SECTOR?
(a) RWLGPF
(b) EOFKUQ
(c) EOFMXS
(d) RWLEPD
(e) RWLEND
Ans (e)

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